GMAT original complete printed practice

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Question 1

A seller buys two products for the same cost per unit. The seller sells 60 units of the first product at 25% above cost and 40 units of the second at 10% above cost. The total profit on these 100 units is $1,900. What is the cost per unit?
  • ☐ A. $100
  • ☐ B. $15.97
  • ☐ C. $76
  • ☐ D. $108.57
  • ☐ E. $190
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: $100
Let the unit cost be c. Each first-product sale contributes 0.25c in profit, and each second-product sale contributes 0.10c, so the quantities sold give 60(0.25c)+40(0.10c)=19c. Set that equal to the stated 1,900 profit to obtain c=100. Check the profits separately: the two products contribute $1,500 and $400, which add to the given total without treating sales revenue as profit.

Question 2

If x≠0 and x≠4, which expression equals x2−16x2−4x?
  • ☐ A. xx+4
  • ☐ B. x+4x
  • ☐ C. x−4x
  • ☐ D. 1
  • ☐ E. x+4
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: x+4x
Factor the numerator and denominator first. The fraction becomes (x−4)(x+4)/[x(x−4)], and the restriction x≠4 permits cancellation of the common factor, leaving (x+4)/x. The restriction x≠0 keeps that remaining denominator valid.

Question 3

At their constant individual rates, pump A fills an empty tank in 6 hours and pump B fills it in 12 hours. Pump A operates alone for 2 hours. Both pumps then operate together until the tank is full. How long do they operate together?
  • ☐ A. 2 hours
  • ☐ B. 2 hours 20 minutes
  • ☐ C. 2 hours 40 minutes
  • ☐ D. 3 hours
  • ☐ E. 4 hours
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: 2 hours 40 minutes
A has filled one-third of the tank. The pumps together fill 1/6+1/12=1/4 tank per hour, so filling the remaining 2/3 takes (2/3)/(1/4)=8/3 hours, or 2 hours 40 minutes. Exclude the initial two hours.

Question 4

What is the greatest positive integer d such that d2 divides 293653 and d3 divides 2123954?
  • ☐ A. 540
  • ☐ B. 1,080
  • ☐ C. 1,440
  • ☐ D. 2,160
  • ☐ E. 4,320
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: 2,160
Check the primes separately. Squaring doubles each exponent in d, and cubing triples it, so its exponent must remain small enough for both corresponding exponents in the supplied numbers. The bounds for 2, 3, and 5 are min(⌊9/2⌋,⌊12/3⌋)=4, min(⌊6/2⌋,⌊9/3⌋)=3, and min(⌊3/2⌋,⌊4/3⌋)=1, respectively. Thus d=24335=2,160. Raising any of those exponents would violate at least one divisibility condition, while adding a different prime would require that prime to occur in both stated numbers.

Question 5

How many integers n satisfy −3<2n−53≤7?
  • ☐ A. 10
  • ☐ B. 12
  • ☐ C. 13
  • ☐ D. 14
  • ☐ E. 15
Show answer and explanation

Response: E

Final answer: 15
Work outward from the fraction. Multiplying the full inequality by 3 gives −9<2n−5≤21, and adding 5 then dividing by 2 gives −2<n≤13. The smallest allowed integer is −1. Counting from that integer through the included upper endpoint gives 13−(−1)+1=15, with the extra one needed because a list of integers contains both its first and last entries.

Question 6

A ticket price is increased by 20% and then the increased price is discounted by 25%. The final price is $90. What was the original price?
  • ☐ A. $75
  • ☐ B. $100
  • ☐ C. $112.50
  • ☐ D. $120
  • ☐ E. $135
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: $100
The two changes multiply the original price by 1.20(0.75)=0.90. Dividing the final $90 by 0.90 gives $100. The percentage changes apply to different bases, so subtracting 25 from 20 does not give the overall change.

Question 7

Positive integers a,b,c satisfy a:b=3:5 and b:c=4:7. If a+b is a multiple of 48, what is the least possible value of a+b+c?
  • ☐ A. 67
  • ☐ B. 134
  • ☐ C. 160
  • ☐ D. 201
  • ☐ E. 268
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: 201
Align the shared value of b. Multiplying the first ratio by 4 and the second by 5 gives a:b:c=12:20:35, whose entries have no common factor, so every integral solution is 12k,20k,35k for an integer k>0. The additional condition requires 32k to be divisible by 48, equivalently 2k to be divisible by 3. The least possible multiplier is therefore k=3, producing the requested total 67(3)=201.

Question 8

The calculated mean of ten observations is 18. One observation was recorded as 42 instead of its correct value, 24. What is the corrected mean?
  • ☐ A. 16.2
  • ☐ B. 18
  • ☐ C. 19.8
  • ☐ D. 20.4
  • ☐ E. 24
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: 16.2
The recorded total was 10(18)=180. Replacing the recorded 42 with the correct 24 reduces that total by 18, to 162, while the number of observations remains ten. The corrected mean is 162/10=16.2. Subtracting the whole error from the mean would mistakenly treat that adjustment as belonging to each observation.

Question 9

An event sold 80 tickets. Adult tickets cost $15 each and student tickets cost $9 each. If ticket revenue was $960 and there were no other ticket types or fees, how many adult tickets were sold?
  • ☐ A. 20
  • ☐ B. 30
  • ☐ C. 40
  • ☐ D. 50
  • ☐ E. 60
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: 40
Begin with an all-student sale. Eighty student tickets would bring in $720, leaving $240 of the observed revenue to be explained by adult sales. Each adult ticket replaces a $9 student ticket with a $15 ticket and therefore adds $6 to this baseline, so 240/6=40 adult tickets were sold. The other forty tickets are student tickets, and 40(15)+40(9)=960 checks the result.

Question 10

What is the sum of all real solutions of |2x−3|=x+6?
  • ☐ A. −8
  • ☐ B. 6
  • ☐ C. 8
  • ☐ D. 9
  • ☐ E. 10
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: 8
Keep both absolute-value cases. The equations 2x−3=x+6 and −(2x−3)=x+6 give x=9 and x=−1, respectively. Substitution confirms both roots. At either value, the right side of the original equation is nonnegative and equals the absolute value on the left, so neither root needs to be discarded. Their requested sum is 9+(−1)=8.

Question 11

A vehicle travels 60 kilometers at 30 kilometers per hour and returns along the same route at 60 kilometers per hour, with no stops. What is its average speed for the entire trip, in kilometers per hour?
  • ☐ A. 20
  • ☐ B. 40
  • ☐ C. 45
  • ☐ D. 50
  • ☐ E. 60
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: 40
Total distance is 120 kilometers. The outward trip takes two hours and the return takes one, giving an average of 120/3=40 kilometers per hour. The arithmetic mean 45 weights the two speeds equally in time, although the slower speed applies for twice as long.

Question 12

What is the remainder when 7103+3104 is divided by 10?
  • ☐ A. 0
  • ☐ B. 1
  • ☐ C. 2
  • ☐ D. 3
  • ☐ E. 4
Show answer and explanation

Response: E

Final answer: 4
Only the last digits matter. Successive powers of 7 have last digits 7,9,3,1, and powers of 3 have last digits 3,9,7,1, with each pattern repeating after four powers. The exponents 103=4(25)+3 and 104=4(26) select the third and fourth positions respectively, contributing 3 and 1. Adding those last digits gives remainder 4 on division by 10.

Question 13

In an arithmetic sequence with first term a and common difference d, the sum of the third and ninth terms is 44, and the sum of the sixth and tenth terms is 60. What is the twelfth term?
  • ☐ A. 42
  • ☐ B. 46
  • ☐ C. 50
  • ☐ D. 54
  • ☐ E. 60
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: 46
The sums give 2a+10d=44 and 2a+14d=60. Subtracting eliminates a. The resulting 4d=16 gives d=4 and then a=2, so the twelfth term is a+11d=46. Twelve increments would reach the thirteenth term.

Question 14

Among 90 employees, 45 belong to committee A, 40 to B, and 35 to C. Exactly 20 belong to both A and B, 15 to both A and C, and 10 to both B and C; these pairwise counts include employees who belong to all three. Five employees belong to all three. How many employees belong to exactly one committee?
  • ☐ A. 25
  • ☐ B. 30
  • ☐ C. 40
  • ☐ D. 45
  • ☐ E. 50
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: 45
Find each committee's exclusive membership. For A, the count is 45−20−15+5=15, because the inclusive pair counts subtract the five triple members twice and one addition restores them correctly. Applying the same calculation to B gives 40−20−10+5=15, and applying it to C gives 35−15−10+5=15. Add the three exclusive counts. Their sum is 45 employees, with each employee counted only in the committee to which that employee exclusively belongs.

Question 15

The equation x2−kx+18=0 has two positive integer roots that differ by 3. What is k?
  • ☐ A. 6
  • ☐ B. 9
  • ☐ C. 11
  • ☐ D. 18
  • ☐ E. 19
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: 9
Use the product and the difference. The constant term requires the two roots to multiply to 18, leaving the positive integer pairs (1,18), (2,9), and (3,6). Their differences are 17, 7, and 3, respectively, so only the last pair meets the stated condition. The roots add to 9. This identifies k=9 because expanding (x−3)(x−6)=x2−9x+18 places the negative of their sum in the coefficient of x.

Question 16

A container holds 100 liters of a uniformly mixed solution that is 20% salt by volume. Twenty liters are removed and replaced with pure water. After thorough mixing, another 20 liters are removed and replaced with pure water. What percent of the final solution is salt?
  • ☐ A. 12.8%
  • ☐ B. 14.4%
  • ☐ C. 16%
  • ☐ D. 18%
  • ☐ E. 20%
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: 12.8%
Each replacement retains 80% of the salt. Starting with 20 liters of salt, two such removals leave 20(0.8)(0.8)=12.8 liters in a final volume of 100 liters, giving 12.8%. The second removal contains less salt because the first refill has diluted the mixture.

Question 17

A bag contains four red, three blue, and two green counters. Two counters are drawn successively at random without replacement. Given that the first counter drawn is not green, what is the probability that the second counter is green?
  • ☐ A. 19
  • ☐ B. 29
  • ☐ C. 14
  • ☐ D. 27
  • ☐ E. 13
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: 14
The first draw removes no green counter. It does remove one of the nine counters, leaving eight in the bag, of which two are still green. Conditional on that information, the next draw has probability 2/8=1/4 of being green. Both possible colors leave these counts unchanged.

Question 18

If 23(x−4)=10, what is x?
  • ☐ A. 11
  • ☐ B. 15
  • ☐ C. 323
  • ☐ D. 19
  • ☐ E. 21
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: 19
Undo the fractional multiplier. Multiplication by 3/2 gives x−4=15, so adding 4 gives x=19. Check it by substitution. The original left side becomes 23(19−4)=10, whereas stopping at 15 would confuse the value of the parenthesized expression with the value of the variable itself.

Question 19

Two disjoint groups together contain 120 observations. The first group has a mean between 60 and 80 inclusive; the second has mean 100. The combined mean is 88. What is the greatest possible number of observations in the first group?
  • ☐ A. 36
  • ☐ B. 48
  • ☐ C. 60
  • ☐ D. 72
  • ☐ E. 84
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: 72
Let n be the first-group count and m its mean. The combined total gives mn+100(120−n)=88(120), which simplifies to (100−m)n=1,440. To make n as large as possible, make 100−m as small as the stated range allows, using m=80 and obtaining n=72. This bound is attainable. Seventy-two observations all equal to 80 and forty-eight all equal to 100 meet both subgroup conditions and have combined mean 88.

Question 20

A sequence starts with a1=2. For each positive integer n, an+1=⌊3an/2⌋, where ⌊y⌋ is the greatest integer no larger than y. What is a7?
  • ☐ A. 13
  • ☐ B. 19
  • ☐ C. 20
  • ☐ D. 22
  • ☐ E. 28
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: 19
Apply the floor at every update. Beginning at 2 gives the seven successive terms 2,3,4,6,9,13,19. In the last two updates, the products are 13.5 and 19.5, so the floor function keeps 13 and 19. The seventh term is 19. Carrying the fractional values forward and rounding only at the end would change the inputs to later updates and would no longer follow the stated recurrence.

Question 21

If x≠0 and x+1x=5, what is x2+1x2?
  • ☐ A. 252
  • ☐ B. 24
  • ☐ C. 23
  • ☐ D. 25
  • ☐ E. 27
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: 23
Squaring the given sum gives x2+2+1/x2=25. The cross term is exactly 2 because x(1/x)=1, so the requested expression is 25−2=23. There is no need to find either possible value of x.

Question 22

Read the following original passage.
Digital procurement systems are often praised for lowering the paperwork costs of bidding on public contracts. If such costs are a major obstacle for small suppliers, moving applications online should broaden participation. Yet a hypothetical study of four municipalities found that small suppliers submitted fewer bids after online systems were introduced, even though application fees and the time required to prepare standard forms had fallen.
An initial interpretation blamed the new systems: they made it easier for large suppliers to enter local markets and underprice smaller rivals. The researchers found, however, that the decline was concentrated in contracts requiring substantial expenditure before any payment could be received. During the same period, the municipalities had combined several small projects into larger contracts, often making payment conditional on acceptance of the completed project. Small suppliers could now prepare an application cheaply but still lack the financing needed to perform the work while awaiting payment. Contracts permitting payments at intermediate milestones continued to attract relatively more small suppliers.
The researchers then compared projects with similar size and payment arrangements before and after the systems changed. In these comparisons, small-supplier participation did not consistently decline. This result weakens the claim that digitization itself caused the overall fall in participation; it does not establish that competition from larger suppliers was irrelevant in every case.
The researchers therefore distinguish the cost of entering a bidding process from the cost of undertaking a contract. Removing the first barrier can matter, but its effect may remain limited when the second barrier is substantial. They also caution that a count of bids reveals neither whether the winning prices were lower nor whether the completed work was better. Evaluating procurement reform requires examining these outcomes separately rather than treating participation as a complete measure of success.
Which statement best expresses the main point of the passage?
  • ☐ A. Digital applications can lower entry costs while financing requirements still restrict supplier participation.
  • ☐ B. Larger suppliers generally charge less than smaller suppliers on municipal contracts.
  • ☐ C. The number of suppliers submitting bids is the most reliable measure of procurement success.
  • ☐ D. Milestone payments always eliminate the financing difficulties of small suppliers.
  • ☐ E. Online procurement should be delayed until municipalities can prevent outside competition.
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: Digital applications can lower entry costs while financing requirements still restrict supplier participation.
Bidding and financing are separate barriers. The passage shows application costs falling while larger contracts and delayed payment restrict small suppliers, then uses matched projects to qualify the proposed digitization cause. It also limits what bid counts reveal about prices and completed work. These points support the first choice.

Question 23

Read the following original passage.
Digital procurement systems are often praised for lowering the paperwork costs of bidding on public contracts. If such costs are a major obstacle for small suppliers, moving applications online should broaden participation. Yet a hypothetical study of four municipalities found that small suppliers submitted fewer bids after online systems were introduced, even though application fees and the time required to prepare standard forms had fallen.
An initial interpretation blamed the new systems: they made it easier for large suppliers to enter local markets and underprice smaller rivals. The researchers found, however, that the decline was concentrated in contracts requiring substantial expenditure before any payment could be received. During the same period, the municipalities had combined several small projects into larger contracts, often making payment conditional on acceptance of the completed project. Small suppliers could now prepare an application cheaply but still lack the financing needed to perform the work while awaiting payment. Contracts permitting payments at intermediate milestones continued to attract relatively more small suppliers.
The researchers then compared projects with similar size and payment arrangements before and after the systems changed. In these comparisons, small-supplier participation did not consistently decline. This result weakens the claim that digitization itself caused the overall fall in participation; it does not establish that competition from larger suppliers was irrelevant in every case.
The researchers therefore distinguish the cost of entering a bidding process from the cost of undertaking a contract. Removing the first barrier can matter, but its effect may remain limited when the second barrier is substantial. They also caution that a count of bids reveals neither whether the winning prices were lower nor whether the completed work was better. Evaluating procurement reform requires examining these outcomes separately rather than treating participation as a complete measure of success.
The comparison of similarly sized projects with similar payment arrangements serves primarily to do which of the following?
  • ☐ A. Show that small suppliers had underestimated the paperwork required by online systems.
  • ☐ B. Identify the lowest contract prices obtainable through either system.
  • ☐ C. Weaken an explanation that attributes the aggregate participation decline to digitization alone.
  • ☐ D. Prove that the municipalities selected larger contracts because applications became cheaper.
  • ☐ E. Establish that every small supplier preferred milestone payments to final payment.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: Weaken an explanation that attributes the aggregate participation decline to digitization alone.
The comparison tests the proposed cause. Matching project size and payment arrangements removes two differences that could explain the aggregate participation trend, and participation no longer falls consistently when those features are held more nearly comparable. This weakens attributing the overall decline to digitization alone. It supplies no price measurements and does not establish why the municipalities combined projects or what every supplier preferred.

Question 24

Read the following original passage.
Digital procurement systems are often praised for lowering the paperwork costs of bidding on public contracts. If such costs are a major obstacle for small suppliers, moving applications online should broaden participation. Yet a hypothetical study of four municipalities found that small suppliers submitted fewer bids after online systems were introduced, even though application fees and the time required to prepare standard forms had fallen.
An initial interpretation blamed the new systems: they made it easier for large suppliers to enter local markets and underprice smaller rivals. The researchers found, however, that the decline was concentrated in contracts requiring substantial expenditure before any payment could be received. During the same period, the municipalities had combined several small projects into larger contracts, often making payment conditional on acceptance of the completed project. Small suppliers could now prepare an application cheaply but still lack the financing needed to perform the work while awaiting payment. Contracts permitting payments at intermediate milestones continued to attract relatively more small suppliers.
The researchers then compared projects with similar size and payment arrangements before and after the systems changed. In these comparisons, small-supplier participation did not consistently decline. This result weakens the claim that digitization itself caused the overall fall in participation; it does not establish that competition from larger suppliers was irrelevant in every case.
The researchers therefore distinguish the cost of entering a bidding process from the cost of undertaking a contract. Removing the first barrier can matter, but its effect may remain limited when the second barrier is substantial. They also caution that a count of bids reveals neither whether the winning prices were lower nor whether the completed work was better. Evaluating procurement reform requires examining these outcomes separately rather than treating participation as a complete measure of success.
Which inference about the researchers' interpretation is best supported?
  • ☐ A. A supplier able to finance any large project would necessarily win more contracts after digitization.
  • ☐ B. A lower application fee can coexist with a higher effective barrier to performing the contracts being offered.
  • ☐ C. The presence of large competitors would matter only if all contracts required final payment.
  • ☐ D. Unchanged participation in matched projects proves that online systems have no effect on any supplier.
  • ☐ E. The total value of contracts awarded to small suppliers must have fallen in proportion to their bid count.
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: A lower application fee can coexist with a higher effective barrier to performing the contracts being offered.
Entry can become cheaper while performance becomes harder to finance: lower application fees and larger contracts requiring expenditure before payment create precisely that combination. Neither barrier determines who wins. Bid counts alone also leave awarded values and price effects undetermined.

Question 25

Read the following original passage.
Digital procurement systems are often praised for lowering the paperwork costs of bidding on public contracts. If such costs are a major obstacle for small suppliers, moving applications online should broaden participation. Yet a hypothetical study of four municipalities found that small suppliers submitted fewer bids after online systems were introduced, even though application fees and the time required to prepare standard forms had fallen.
An initial interpretation blamed the new systems: they made it easier for large suppliers to enter local markets and underprice smaller rivals. The researchers found, however, that the decline was concentrated in contracts requiring substantial expenditure before any payment could be received. During the same period, the municipalities had combined several small projects into larger contracts, often making payment conditional on acceptance of the completed project. Small suppliers could now prepare an application cheaply but still lack the financing needed to perform the work while awaiting payment. Contracts permitting payments at intermediate milestones continued to attract relatively more small suppliers.
The researchers then compared projects with similar size and payment arrangements before and after the systems changed. In these comparisons, small-supplier participation did not consistently decline. This result weakens the claim that digitization itself caused the overall fall in participation; it does not establish that competition from larger suppliers was irrelevant in every case.
The researchers therefore distinguish the cost of entering a bidding process from the cost of undertaking a contract. Removing the first barrier can matter, but its effect may remain limited when the second barrier is substantial. They also caution that a count of bids reveals neither whether the winning prices were lower nor whether the completed work was better. Evaluating procurement reform requires examining these outcomes separately rather than treating participation as a complete measure of success.
Which change most directly addresses the financing mechanism identified in the passage, assuming its administrative cost is held constant?
  • ☐ A. Make the final acceptance inspection more detailed without changing payment timing.
  • ☐ B. Reduce the time needed to upload standard bidding documents.
  • ☐ C. Offer payment at completed intermediate stages of a large project instead of only after final acceptance.
  • ☐ D. Invite additional large suppliers to submit bids for the same project.
  • ☐ E. Publish winning bid prices after all work has been accepted.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: Offer payment at completed intermediate stages of a large project instead of only after final acceptance.
Intermediate payments advance reimbursement during performance. They reduce the amount of work suppliers must finance before receiving money and therefore target the mechanism identified by the researchers, while quicker document uploads target the separate bidding barrier. Detailed final inspections do not advance that payment.

Question 26

Employees at a company could choose to join a new mentoring program. After six months, participants' output had risen more than nonparticipants' output. The director concludes that mentoring caused the additional rise. Which finding, if true, most weakens that conclusion?
  • ☐ A. The company used the same output measure for both groups.
  • ☐ B. Participants attended more mentoring sessions than the minimum required.
  • ☐ C. Most mentors had worked for the company for several years.
  • ☐ D. The participants' output had already been rising faster than nonparticipants' output before the program began.
  • ☐ E. Some nonparticipants said they would join a later mentoring program.
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: The participants' output had already been rising faster than nonparticipants' output before the program began.
The output trends already differed. Faster gains among future participants before mentoring began supply a competing explanation for the later gap, especially because employees chose whether to participate. Consistent measurement improves comparison, but attendance and mentor tenure do not eliminate the preexisting trend.

Question 27

A library plans to place reserved books in secure pickup lockers to reduce lines at its service desk. The lockers would be accessed with a library card. Which finding, if true, most strengthens the plan's prospects of reducing those lines?
  • ☐ A. Most people waiting at the desk are collecting reserved books and already have cards that will open the lockers.
  • ☐ B. The average locker pickup takes less time than a desk pickup, but few of the current desk users collect reserved books.
  • ☐ C. Most reserved-book collectors already have usable cards, but the proposed lockers would hold only a small fraction of daily reserved pickups.
  • ☐ D. Some patrons could use the lockers, but their reserved books must first be checked out at the service desk.
  • ☐ E. Most patrons request lockers, but few have usable cards and obtaining a usable card requires a service-desk visit.
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: Most people waiting at the desk are collecting reserved books and already have cards that will open the lockers.
Identify who can leave the queue. The first choice covers most people currently waiting and gives them usable cards, so the lockers can replace their desk pickups without adding a preliminary visit. Capacity still matters. Faster locker service for few existing users or space for few daily reservations would divert less of the queue, while mandatory desk checkout and card issuance retain the visits the plan needs to remove.

Question 28

A city garage currently closes at 6 p.m. The manager proposes extending paid parking to 9 p.m. and argues that collecting payments during the added hours will increase total daily parking revenue. Charges during the original hours will remain unchanged. The argument requires which assumption?
  • ☐ A. The garage will collect as much revenue in each added hour as in each original hour.
  • ☐ B. The operating cost of the garage will not increase when hours are extended.
  • ☐ C. Some payments collected during the added hours will not be fully offset by reductions in payments during the original hours.
  • ☐ D. Every driver who previously parked before 6 p.m. will continue doing so.
  • ☐ E. No other garage in the city offers paid parking after 6 p.m.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: Some payments collected during the added hours will not be fully offset by reductions in payments during the original hours.
Revenue increases only when additional receipts exceed any receipts displaced from the original hours, so fully offsetting every added payment would defeat the conclusion. Revenue is not profit. Unchanged operating costs are consequently unnecessary, as are equal hourly receipts, universal customer retention, and the absence of competitors.

Question 29

A records office introduced a new data-entry screen in January. The same clerks worked both months, and errors were measured using the same audit procedure. January's error rate was lower than December's. Which question best tests whether a change in the work, rather than the screen itself, explains that decline?
  • ☐ A. Did the new screen display the familiar fields in a different order?
  • ☐ B. Were January's records less complex than December's records, independently of the screen change?
  • ☐ C. Did the clerks rate the new screen's labels as easier to read?
  • ☐ D. Did the audit continue to identify errors using the same definition in both months?
  • ☐ E. Did the new screen let clerks view more fields without scrolling?
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: Were January's records less complex than December's records, independently of the screen change?
Ask whether the records changed. Less complex January records could produce fewer errors even if the screen contributed nothing to the improvement, so comparing record complexity directly tests the proposed change in the work. The screen's field order, labels, and scrolling are features of the intervention itself. The stipulated common audit controls how errors are detected, leaving the difficulty of the records as a separate issue.

Question 30

Read the following original passage.
A hypothetical research team used a network of sensors to measure water temperature in an estuary. The records showed higher readings during storms than during calm periods. One analyst suggested that storms brought warmer water into the estuary. Another noted that the sensors' protective cases became wet during storms and asked whether this condition could affect the measurements.
To investigate, the team placed sensors with wet and dry cases in water maintained at the same temperature. Wet-case sensors gave higher readings, although the size of the difference changed with water flow. The experiment established that case wetness could introduce an upward error under the tested conditions. It did not show that every storm reading was entirely erroneous, since the estuary's actual water temperature could also change during storms.
The team first considered correcting all storm readings by subtracting the average error found in the experiment. That approach would be reliable only if the relevant error remained sufficiently stable across field conditions. The observed dependence on flow gave reason to doubt this assumption. Further comparisons against independent temperature measurements, made over a range of flow conditions, were therefore needed before a correction could be justified.
These findings illustrate a distinction between identifying a source of measurement error and recovering the quantity originally measured. The former may be possible with a controlled comparison; the latter can require information about conditions at each observation. The existing records still preserve useful information about when sensor readings changed and how those readings varied across locations. Their value is consequently reduced in a specific respect rather than eliminated. The team proposes retaining the original records, documenting the suspected error, and limiting claims about absolute temperature until the correction method has been validated.
The passage is chiefly concerned with which distinction?
  • ☐ A. The difference between comparing sensor networks and studying a single sensor.
  • ☐ B. The difference between making temperature observations and measuring water flow.
  • ☐ C. The difference between finding a possible source of error and justifiably correcting affected measurements.
  • ☐ D. The difference between explaining storms and forecasting their arrival.
  • ☐ E. The difference between preserving original records and sharing them with other researchers.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: The difference between finding a possible source of error and justifiably correcting affected measurements.
Finding an error does not fix it. The wet-case experiment identifies a mechanism, but its dependence on water flow prevents one laboratory average from establishing the correct field adjustment for every observation. The final paragraph develops that distinction while preserving limited uses of the records.

Question 31

Read the following original passage.
A hypothetical research team used a network of sensors to measure water temperature in an estuary. The records showed higher readings during storms than during calm periods. One analyst suggested that storms brought warmer water into the estuary. Another noted that the sensors' protective cases became wet during storms and asked whether this condition could affect the measurements.
To investigate, the team placed sensors with wet and dry cases in water maintained at the same temperature. Wet-case sensors gave higher readings, although the size of the difference changed with water flow. The experiment established that case wetness could introduce an upward error under the tested conditions. It did not show that every storm reading was entirely erroneous, since the estuary's actual water temperature could also change during storms.
The team first considered correcting all storm readings by subtracting the average error found in the experiment. That approach would be reliable only if the relevant error remained sufficiently stable across field conditions. The observed dependence on flow gave reason to doubt this assumption. Further comparisons against independent temperature measurements, made over a range of flow conditions, were therefore needed before a correction could be justified.
These findings illustrate a distinction between identifying a source of measurement error and recovering the quantity originally measured. The former may be possible with a controlled comparison; the latter can require information about conditions at each observation. The existing records still preserve useful information about when sensor readings changed and how those readings varied across locations. Their value is consequently reduced in a specific respect rather than eliminated. The team proposes retaining the original records, documenting the suspected error, and limiting claims about absolute temperature until the correction method has been validated.
What is the primary purpose of describing sensors with wet and dry cases placed in water at the same temperature?
  • ☐ A. To demonstrate a method for determining the temperature of every past storm.
  • ☐ B. To provide controlled evidence that case wetness can affect readings independently of water temperature.
  • ☐ C. To show that wet-case sensors always differ from dry-case sensors by a fixed amount.
  • ☐ D. To explain why all measurements made during calm weather should be discarded.
  • ☐ E. To establish that storms cannot change the estuary's actual water temperature.
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: To provide controlled evidence that case wetness can affect readings independently of water temperature.
Water temperature was held constant. The wet--dry reading difference therefore isolates the tested case condition as a possible error mechanism, although the amount changes with flow and actual storms could still alter true temperature. It does not validate a correction for every earlier reading.

Question 32

Read the following original passage.
A hypothetical research team used a network of sensors to measure water temperature in an estuary. The records showed higher readings during storms than during calm periods. One analyst suggested that storms brought warmer water into the estuary. Another noted that the sensors' protective cases became wet during storms and asked whether this condition could affect the measurements.
To investigate, the team placed sensors with wet and dry cases in water maintained at the same temperature. Wet-case sensors gave higher readings, although the size of the difference changed with water flow. The experiment established that case wetness could introduce an upward error under the tested conditions. It did not show that every storm reading was entirely erroneous, since the estuary's actual water temperature could also change during storms.
The team first considered correcting all storm readings by subtracting the average error found in the experiment. That approach would be reliable only if the relevant error remained sufficiently stable across field conditions. The observed dependence on flow gave reason to doubt this assumption. Further comparisons against independent temperature measurements, made over a range of flow conditions, were therefore needed before a correction could be justified.
These findings illustrate a distinction between identifying a source of measurement error and recovering the quantity originally measured. The former may be possible with a controlled comparison; the latter can require information about conditions at each observation. The existing records still preserve useful information about when sensor readings changed and how those readings varied across locations. Their value is consequently reduced in a specific respect rather than eliminated. The team proposes retaining the original records, documenting the suspected error, and limiting claims about absolute temperature until the correction method has been validated.
Suppose the flow conditions at each past observation are unknown. Which conclusion follows most directly from the passage?
  • ☐ A. No information in the old records can be useful for any purpose.
  • ☐ B. The controlled comparison proves that all past storm temperatures were lower than reported.
  • ☐ C. The exact true temperature at each past observation cannot be recovered merely by knowing the experiment's average wet-case error.
  • ☐ D. Wet-case effects must cancel when readings from all locations are averaged.
  • ☐ E. The old records become accurate once the storm observations are removed.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: The exact true temperature at each past observation cannot be recovered merely by knowing the experiment's average wet-case error.
Flow affects the size of the error, so an experimental average does not reveal the adjustment required at each past observation whose flow conditions are unknown. Exact recovery remains unsupported. The records can still locate changes in readings, and universal cancellation or complete remaining accuracy is not established.

Question 33

Read the following original passage.
A hypothetical research team used a network of sensors to measure water temperature in an estuary. The records showed higher readings during storms than during calm periods. One analyst suggested that storms brought warmer water into the estuary. Another noted that the sensors' protective cases became wet during storms and asked whether this condition could affect the measurements.
To investigate, the team placed sensors with wet and dry cases in water maintained at the same temperature. Wet-case sensors gave higher readings, although the size of the difference changed with water flow. The experiment established that case wetness could introduce an upward error under the tested conditions. It did not show that every storm reading was entirely erroneous, since the estuary's actual water temperature could also change during storms.
The team first considered correcting all storm readings by subtracting the average error found in the experiment. That approach would be reliable only if the relevant error remained sufficiently stable across field conditions. The observed dependence on flow gave reason to doubt this assumption. Further comparisons against independent temperature measurements, made over a range of flow conditions, were therefore needed before a correction could be justified.
These findings illustrate a distinction between identifying a source of measurement error and recovering the quantity originally measured. The former may be possible with a controlled comparison; the latter can require information about conditions at each observation. The existing records still preserve useful information about when sensor readings changed and how those readings varied across locations. Their value is consequently reduced in a specific respect rather than eliminated. The team proposes retaining the original records, documenting the suspected error, and limiting claims about absolute temperature until the correction method has been validated.
Which description best captures the author's attitude toward the existing sensor records?
  • ☐ A. Qualified confidence in their limited uses, with caution about unvalidated temperature corrections.
  • ☐ B. Support for immediately applying the average laboratory correction while further comparisons refine its precision.
  • ☐ C. Confidence in the original absolute readings, with reservations about whether laboratory case wetness occurs in the field.
  • ☐ D. Interest in the records chiefly as evidence of collection methods, with little reliance on their reported storm timing.
  • ☐ E. Preference for replacing the existing records with new measurements rather than preserving the original observations.
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: Qualified confidence in their limited uses, with caution about unvalidated temperature corrections.
Read the final paragraph's qualified endorsement. The author proposes keeping the original records and names timing and spatial variation as useful information they still preserve, while limiting absolute-temperature claims until a correction has been validated. That supports the first choice. Immediate average correction, confidence in unadjusted absolute readings, and replacing the archive would each remove a qualification or recommendation that the passage expressly retains.

Question 34

A distributor's shipment error rate fell from 2% last year to 1% this year. The manager concludes that the number of incorrect shipments must therefore have fallen. The reasoning is flawed because it fails to consider that
  • ☐ A. a decrease of one percentage point in the error rate is necessarily a decrease of one percent in the number of errors.
  • ☐ B. the total number of shipments may have increased enough to offset the lower error rate.
  • ☐ C. the proportional decrease in the error rate cannot be calculated without knowing the number of shipments.
  • ☐ D. a rise in the number of incorrect shipments necessarily implies a rise in the percentage that are incorrect.
  • ☐ E. halving the error rate guarantees that the error count falls by half even when the shipment volume changes.
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: the total number of shipments may have increased enough to offset the lower error rate.
A rate needs a denominator. At 1,000 shipments, 2% gives 20 errors, whereas at 3,000 shipments, 1% gives 30, so volume can reverse the count trend. The rate fell by 50%, but that proportional change does not determine the change in the number of errors.

Question 35

A shop sells only standard and premium notebooks. Premium notebooks cost more than standard notebooks. Between two months, the price of each type fell, yet the average price paid per notebook rose. Which fact best explains this result?
  • ☐ A. Fewer notebooks of either type were sold in the second month.
  • ☐ B. The shop paid less to purchase each premium notebook in the second month.
  • ☐ C. A substantially larger share of the notebooks sold in the second month were premium notebooks.
  • ☐ D. The shop advertised the new lower standard-notebook price prominently.
  • ☐ E. The average of the two posted notebook prices fell by a smaller percentage than the standard-notebook price alone.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: A substantially larger share of the notebooks sold in the second month were premium notebooks.
The sales mix supplies the explanation. A substantially larger premium share gives greater weight to the more expensive type and can raise the pooled price even while both type-specific prices fall. Total sales volume alone does not establish that mix, and wholesale cost concerns the shop's margin.

Question 36

A town plans to replace all its streetlights with lamps that provide the same light output but save $10,000 in electricity each year. It predicts lower annual operating costs after installation. Purchase and installation costs are excluded from this comparison; other operating costs remain unchanged except for any change described below. Which fact most seriously undermines the prediction?
  • ☐ A. Installation would require a one-time $15,000 payment.
  • ☐ B. Annual insurance costs would increase by $3,000.
  • ☐ C. Annual replacement supplies would cost $6,000 more than before.
  • ☐ D. Annual maintenance costs would increase by $12,000.
  • ☐ E. Routine inspections would add $4,000 to the annual operating costs.
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: Annual maintenance costs would increase by $12,000.
The prediction concerns recurring operating costs after installation. An additional $12,000 of yearly maintenance exceeds the $10,000 electricity saving, creating a $2,000 annual increase. The smaller recurring charges leave savings. The one-time installation payment belongs to the expressly excluded comparison, rather than to the annual operating expenses being predicted.

Question 37

Some critics claim that automation necessarily reduces a region's total employment because automated production requires fewer workers. In one region, production employment fell after automation, but employment in related maintenance and design services grew by more than the production decline. That region therefore challenges the critics' general claim. The two bold statements play which roles?
  • ☐ A. The first states a claim challenged by the argument; the second supplies evidence used to challenge it.
  • ☐ B. The first supplies evidence for the argument's conclusion; the second states that conclusion.
  • ☐ C. The first is the author's recommendation; the second is a reason for adopting it.
  • ☐ D. The first and second are two explanations the author treats as equally supported.
  • ☐ E. The first states a condition accepted by the author; the second shows that the condition was not met.
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: The first states a claim challenged by the argument; the second supplies evidence used to challenge it.
The critics' necessity claim is challenged. The reported maintenance and design gains offset the production decline and supply evidence against that claim in the cited region, while the author's conclusion follows both bold statements. Neither bold statement recommends a policy.

Question 38

Every donated artwork accepted by a museum has a provenance file. Every work with a provenance file appears in the museum's catalog. Some cataloged works are not donated. Which statement must be true?
  • ☐ A. Every cataloged work has a provenance file.
  • ☐ B. Every donated work appears in the museum's catalog.
  • ☐ C. Some accepted donated artworks lack provenance files.
  • ☐ D. Every accepted donated artwork appears in the museum's catalog.
  • ☐ E. No work that is not donated can have a provenance file.
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: Every accepted donated artwork appears in the museum's catalog.
Chain the two one-way implications. Accepted donation implies a provenance file, which implies catalog inclusion, so every accepted donated artwork is cataloged even though not every cataloged work need have a file. The premises leave rejected donations and provenance files for nondonated works unrestricted.

Question 39

Read the following original passage.
Consider a hypothetical rail network in which companies publish schedules using their stations' local clocks. Each clock keeps accurate local time, yet a passenger changing trains must translate between two timetable references. As connections become more frequent, even a reliable departure time at each station leaves travelers and dispatchers with extra coordination work. The problem arises from the relation between schedules, rather than from a defect in any one clock.
An operator might respond by adding a waiting interval before each connecting train departs. On an isolated line, generous intervals can absorb small uncertainties at little cost. At a busy interchange, however, those intervals occupy platforms and rolling stock needed by other services. More protection for one connection can therefore reduce the number of connections the network can offer.
A shared timetable reference addresses a different part of the problem. Companies agree on a common way to express scheduled times while retaining their own routes and departure decisions. A dispatcher can then compare arrival and departure entries directly, without repeatedly converting between local references. The agreement need not make trains faster or clocks more precise. It makes information from separate services immediately usable together.
The value of this arrangement depends on how services interact. A line whose passengers rarely transfer may gain little from changing its timetable convention. A company at a junction can gain substantially, particularly when neighboring companies also adopt the reference. Adoption thus creates reciprocal advantages: each participant makes its schedule easier for others to use and benefits from their participation. The example shows how a modest shared rule can expand a network's practical capacity even when the capabilities of its individual members remain unchanged.
Which statement best expresses the passage's central explanation?
  • ☐ A. More precise station clocks allow rail companies to reduce the number of connections they offer.
  • ☐ B. Longer waiting intervals chiefly improve a rail network by increasing the speed of individual journeys.
  • ☐ C. A shared timetable reference can improve coordination among linked services without improving each service's physical capabilities.
  • ☐ D. A common timetable is valuable chiefly because it transfers route decisions from companies to a central dispatcher.
  • ☐ E. Differences in timetable conventions matter mainly on isolated lines rather than at busy interchanges.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: A shared timetable reference can improve coordination among linked services without improving each service's physical capabilities.
The common reference addresses coordination. Accurate clocks and reliable individual departures already exist in the example, but users must translate between schedules, and buffering connections can consume resources at busy junctions. Expressing times on one reference lets separate schedules work together directly. Companies retain their routes and departures, and no increase in train speed or clock precision is required for the described benefit.

Question 40

Read the following original passage.
Consider a hypothetical rail network in which companies publish schedules using their stations' local clocks. Each clock keeps accurate local time, yet a passenger changing trains must translate between two timetable references. As connections become more frequent, even a reliable departure time at each station leaves travelers and dispatchers with extra coordination work. The problem arises from the relation between schedules, rather than from a defect in any one clock.
An operator might respond by adding a waiting interval before each connecting train departs. On an isolated line, generous intervals can absorb small uncertainties at little cost. At a busy interchange, however, those intervals occupy platforms and rolling stock needed by other services. More protection for one connection can therefore reduce the number of connections the network can offer.
A shared timetable reference addresses a different part of the problem. Companies agree on a common way to express scheduled times while retaining their own routes and departure decisions. A dispatcher can then compare arrival and departure entries directly, without repeatedly converting between local references. The agreement need not make trains faster or clocks more precise. It makes information from separate services immediately usable together.
The value of this arrangement depends on how services interact. A line whose passengers rarely transfer may gain little from changing its timetable convention. A company at a junction can gain substantially, particularly when neighboring companies also adopt the reference. Adoption thus creates reciprocal advantages: each participant makes its schedule easier for others to use and benefits from their participation. The example shows how a modest shared rule can expand a network's practical capacity even when the capabilities of its individual members remain unchanged.
Which inference is most strongly supported by the passage?
  • ☐ A. An operator with an accurate local clock can still benefit from adopting the common reference when its passengers transfer to neighboring services.
  • ☐ B. The main benefit of adopting a common reference is that connecting trains wait longer before leaving.
  • ☐ C. An isolated line is likely to gain more from the convention than a company operating at a junction.
  • ☐ D. Companies must surrender their departure decisions before schedules using the common reference can be compared.
  • ☐ E. A common reference chiefly shortens the time a train spends traveling between two stations.
Show answer and explanation

Response: A

Final answer: An operator with an accurate local clock can still benefit from adopting the common reference when its passengers transfer to neighboring services.
Accuracy at one station does not solve translation between schedules. The first paragraph establishes that distinction, and the final paragraph places the larger gains at junctions where passengers transfer. An accurately timed operator can therefore benefit through its relationships with other services.

Question 41

Read the following original passage.
Consider a hypothetical rail network in which companies publish schedules using their stations' local clocks. Each clock keeps accurate local time, yet a passenger changing trains must translate between two timetable references. As connections become more frequent, even a reliable departure time at each station leaves travelers and dispatchers with extra coordination work. The problem arises from the relation between schedules, rather than from a defect in any one clock.
An operator might respond by adding a waiting interval before each connecting train departs. On an isolated line, generous intervals can absorb small uncertainties at little cost. At a busy interchange, however, those intervals occupy platforms and rolling stock needed by other services. More protection for one connection can therefore reduce the number of connections the network can offer.
A shared timetable reference addresses a different part of the problem. Companies agree on a common way to express scheduled times while retaining their own routes and departure decisions. A dispatcher can then compare arrival and departure entries directly, without repeatedly converting between local references. The agreement need not make trains faster or clocks more precise. It makes information from separate services immediately usable together.
The value of this arrangement depends on how services interact. A line whose passengers rarely transfer may gain little from changing its timetable convention. A company at a junction can gain substantially, particularly when neighboring companies also adopt the reference. Adoption thus creates reciprocal advantages: each participant makes its schedule easier for others to use and benefits from their participation. The example shows how a modest shared rule can expand a network's practical capacity even when the capabilities of its individual members remain unchanged.
According to the passage, why can longer waiting intervals be costly at a busy interchange?
  • ☐ A. They require station clocks to adopt a less precise way of keeping local time.
  • ☐ B. They occupy platforms and rolling stock that other services could use.
  • ☐ C. They prevent companies from selecting their own departure times.
  • ☐ D. They increase the number of local-time conversions needed for each timetable entry.
  • ☐ E. They require neighboring companies to publish fewer details about their routes.
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: They occupy platforms and rolling stock that other services could use.
The intervals use scarce shared equipment. The second paragraph names platforms and rolling stock, explaining why protecting one connection can leave less capacity for others. It describes an opportunity cost within the interchange, rather than a change in clock precision or company authority.

Question 42

Read the following original passage.
Consider a hypothetical rail network in which companies publish schedules using their stations' local clocks. Each clock keeps accurate local time, yet a passenger changing trains must translate between two timetable references. As connections become more frequent, even a reliable departure time at each station leaves travelers and dispatchers with extra coordination work. The problem arises from the relation between schedules, rather than from a defect in any one clock.
An operator might respond by adding a waiting interval before each connecting train departs. On an isolated line, generous intervals can absorb small uncertainties at little cost. At a busy interchange, however, those intervals occupy platforms and rolling stock needed by other services. More protection for one connection can therefore reduce the number of connections the network can offer.
A shared timetable reference addresses a different part of the problem. Companies agree on a common way to express scheduled times while retaining their own routes and departure decisions. A dispatcher can then compare arrival and departure entries directly, without repeatedly converting between local references. The agreement need not make trains faster or clocks more precise. It makes information from separate services immediately usable together.
The value of this arrangement depends on how services interact. A line whose passengers rarely transfer may gain little from changing its timetable convention. A company at a junction can gain substantially, particularly when neighboring companies also adopt the reference. Adoption thus creates reciprocal advantages: each participant makes its schedule easier for others to use and benefits from their participation. The example shows how a modest shared rule can expand a network's practical capacity even when the capabilities of its individual members remain unchanged.
What is the main role of the third paragraph in the passage's reasoning?
  • ☐ A. It traces the coordination problem to inaccurate clocks and proposes a technical repair.
  • ☐ B. It explains how a shared convention makes schedules comparable while leaving individual operating decisions intact.
  • ☐ C. It describes a central authority that replaces the decisions of separate companies.
  • ☐ D. It compares the financial expense of a new convention with the expense of longer waiting intervals.
  • ☐ E. It presents measurements showing how much faster trains became after every company adopted the convention.
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: It explains how a shared convention makes schedules comparable while leaving individual operating decisions intact.
The third paragraph explains the mechanism. A common time reference lets the dispatcher compare scheduled arrivals and departures directly, connecting the earlier translation problem to the later reciprocal gains from participation. The companies keep their own decisions. A clock repair, a central replacement of company authority, financial measurements, and measured train-speed increases are all absent from this paragraph's account of how the arrangement works.

Question 43

For comparable parcels, delivery service X reports 96% on-time delivery and service Y reports 92%. Their fees are identical. A manager concludes that choosing X will reduce the probability that the company's next parcel arrives late. Which assumption does the conclusion require?
  • ☐ A. Both services delivered the same total number of parcels when their rates were measured.
  • ☐ B. Late delivery is more costly to the company than a higher delivery fee would be.
  • ☐ C. The reported difference is relevant to the kind of parcel and route the company will use.
  • ☐ D. Neither service has ever delivered every parcel on time during a week.
  • ☐ E. Service X operates in more cities than service Y.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: The reported difference is relevant to the kind of parcel and route the company will use.
The reported comparison must fit this shipment. A general on-time advantage cannot establish a lower late-delivery probability for the company's next parcel if its route and parcel category have the opposite performance pattern. Equal sample sizes and a larger operating network are unnecessary.

Question 44

A retailer received an average customer rating of 4.6 out of 5 for a new product, compared with 4.0 for its earlier model. The retailer concludes that customers generally find the new product better. Which fact, if true, most weakens the conclusion?
  • ☐ A. The new-product survey had substantially fewer respondents than the earlier-model survey.
  • ☐ B. Customers who returned the new product were excluded from its rating survey, but returners were included in the earlier model's survey.
  • ☐ C. Both surveys used the same five-point scale with the same descriptions for each rating.
  • ☐ D. Among buyers who rated both models, the new product also received a higher average rating.
  • ☐ E. Both surveys asked buyers to rate several features before giving an overall rating.
Show answer and explanation

Response: B

Final answer: Customers who returned the new product were excluded from its rating survey, but returners were included in the earlier model's survey.
Excluding returners from only the new-product survey can systematically remove dissatisfied customers from that average. The samples therefore represent buyers differently. Fewer respondents alone establish uncertainty rather than a directional bias, while equal rating anchors and a favorable within-buyer comparison do not supply the same objection.

Question 45

A retailer sells every unit at the same positive price, with no other revenue. What is the total sales revenue?
(1) Exactly 80 units were sold.
(2) The price per unit was $25.
Decide whether the statements provide enough information to answer the question. Evaluate each statement separately before combining them.
  • ☐ A. Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ B. Statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ C. Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ D. Each statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ E. The two statements together are not sufficient.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Revenue is quantity times price. Statement (1) fixes the quantity at 80 but leaves the positive price unrestricted, so prices of $10 and $25 would produce different revenues. Statement (2) fixes the price at $25 and leaves the quantity unknown. Neither works alone. Together the two factors are known, giving 80(25)=$2,000 and selecting the combined-sufficiency answer.

Question 46

Source 1: Original policy. A shipment contains exactly 100 identical units. Divide it between at most two routes, using integer allocations that do not exceed the listed capacities. All units must arrive by day 4. Use only routes with historical on-time rates of at least 95%. Total charges, including one fixed fee for each used route, must not exceed $2,400. There are no other charges, discounts, or routes.
Source 2: Route quotes. Days and charges below are the stipulated planning values; an on-time rate describes past shipments, not a delivery guarantee.
RouteCapacityArrival dayOn-time rateUnit chargeFixed fee
A60395%$20$200
B80497%$18$400
C100599%$16$100
D50294%$22$150
Source 3: Approved amendment. The deadline is changed to day 5. Every other requirement and every route quote remains unchanged.
For each statement, decide whether it is supported by the supplied information. Select exactly one response for each row.
1. Using only route A can satisfy the original policy.
2. Allocating 20 units to A and 80 to B satisfies every requirement of the original policy.
3. Using only route C can satisfy the amended policy.
  • ☐ A. Row 1: Yes
  • ☐ B. Row 1: No
  • ☐ C. Row 2: Yes
  • ☐ D. Row 2: No
  • ☐ E. Row 3: Yes
  • ☐ F. Row 3: No
Show answer and explanation

Response: B,D,E

Final answer: Row 1: No; Row 2: No; Row 3: Yes
Check each proposal against every requirement. A alone fails immediately because its capacity is only 60 units. The proposed split between A and B fits their capacities, arrival days, and historical-rate cutoffs, but its charge is 20(20)+80(18)+200+400=$2,440. That exceeds the budget. Under the amended deadline, C alone can carry all 100 units for 100(16)+100=$1,700, arriving on day 5 with a qualifying historical rate.

Question 47

The chart gives exact quarterly shipment counts for two divisions.
020406080Q14050Q26050Q35070Q48060Shipments (hundreds)
Outline bars: East; solid bars: West.
Complete both statements. Blank 1: From Q2 to Q3, West shipments increased by . Blank 2: In Q4, the ratio of East shipments to West shipments was . Select exactly one choice for each blank.
  • ☐ A. Blank 1: 20%
  • ☐ B. Blank 1: 40%
  • ☐ C. Blank 1: 50%
  • ☐ D. Blank 2: 3/4
  • ☐ E. Blank 2: 4/3
  • ☐ F. Blank 2: 3/2
Show answer and explanation

Response: B,E

Final answer: Blank 1: 40%; Blank 2: 4/3
West's Q2 count is the base. Its increase from 50 to 70 hundred shipments is 20 on that base of 50, giving 20/50=40%. Q4 has 80 East and 60 West, so the ratio is 80/60=4/3, with the common hundreds unit canceling. Reversing the division would give 3/4.

Question 48

A service team consists of 12 employees, each working one full shift. Each senior employee handles 8 requests, and each junior employee handles 5 requests. The team handles exactly 81 requests, with no overlap or unfinished work. Find the senior count in Column 1 and the junior count in Column 2.
Select exactly one response for Column 1 and exactly one for Column 2. The two selections must satisfy the conditions together; a value may be selected in both columns.
  • ☐ A. Column 1: Senior count: 3
  • ☐ B. Column 1: Senior count: 4
  • ☐ C. Column 1: Senior count: 5
  • ☐ D. Column 1: Senior count: 7
  • ☐ E. Column 1: Senior count: 9
  • ☐ F. Column 2: Junior count: 3
  • ☐ G. Column 2: Junior count: 4
  • ☐ H. Column 2: Junior count: 5
  • ☐ I. Column 2: Junior count: 7
  • ☐ J. Column 2: Junior count: 9
Show answer and explanation

Response: D,H

Final answer: Column 1: Senior count: 7; Column 2: Junior count: 5
Let s and j count seniors and juniors. The staff total gives s+j=12, while their separate per-shift capacities give 8s+5j=81. Subtracting five times the first equation from the second leaves 3s=21, so s=7 and j=5. Check both constraints. The counts add to twelve and their capacities give 7(8)+5(5)=81, so those two column selections describe the same feasible team.

Question 49

The numbers x and y are positive integers. What is x?
(1) x+y=12.
(2) x−y=4.
Decide whether the statements provide enough information to answer the question. Evaluate each statement separately before combining them.
  • ☐ A. Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ B. Statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ C. Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ D. Each statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ E. The two statements together are not sufficient.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
The sum permits (5,7) or (7,5), and the difference permits (5,1) or (6,2), so neither statement alone determines x. Combine them by adding their equations. This eliminates y and gives 2x=16, so x=8 and y=4 satisfy both statements uniquely.

Question 50

The table records one complete reporting period. Each completed case is among the cases received in its region. No case belongs to more than one region. Completion rate means completed divided by received.
RegionReceivedCompletedMean hours per completed case
A20016010
B1009012
C3002108
D1501209
E504511
F2001507
G1008510
H100809
For each statement, decide whether it is supported by the supplied information. Select exactly one response for each row.
1. The pooled completion rate for all regions is lower than the unweighted mean of the eight regional completion rates.
2. Every region receiving at least 200 cases had a completion rate of at least 80%.
3. Every region with mean hours per completed case of at least 10 had a completion rate of at least 80%.
  • ☐ A. Row 1: Yes
  • ☐ B. Row 1: No
  • ☐ C. Row 2: Yes
  • ☐ D. Row 2: No
  • ☐ E. Row 3: Yes
  • ☐ F. Row 3: No
Show answer and explanation

Response: A,D,E

Final answer: Row 1: Yes; Row 2: No; Row 3: Yes
Pool the counts first. The eight regions received 1,200 cases and completed 940, giving 940/1,200≈78.33%. Averaging their individual rates of 80, 90, 70, 80, 90, 75, 85, and 80 percent instead gives 81.25%, so the first statement is supported. C and F refute the second statement with rates of 70% and 75% despite receiving at least 200 cases. For the final statement, only A, B, E, and G meet the hours condition, and their respective completion rates of 80%, 90%, 90%, and 85% all meet the required threshold.

Question 51

Source 1: Original policy. A shipment contains exactly 100 identical units. Divide it between at most two routes, using integer allocations that do not exceed the listed capacities. All units must arrive by day 4. Use only routes with historical on-time rates of at least 95%. Total charges, including one fixed fee for each used route, must not exceed $2,400. There are no other charges, discounts, or routes.
Source 2: Route quotes. Days and charges below are the stipulated planning values; an on-time rate describes past shipments, not a delivery guarantee.
RouteCapacityArrival dayOn-time rateUnit chargeFixed fee
A60395%$20$200
B80497%$18$400
C100599%$16$100
D50294%$22$150
Source 3: Approved amendment. The deadline is changed to day 5. Every other requirement and every route quote remains unchanged.
For each statement, decide whether it is supported by the supplied information. Select exactly one response for each row.
1. No allocation can satisfy the original policy.
2. If only B's capacity were increased to 100, using B alone could satisfy the original policy.
3. The historical rate for C establishes that at least 99 of the 100 units in this shipment will arrive on time.
  • ☐ A. Row 1: Yes
  • ☐ B. Row 1: No
  • ☐ C. Row 2: Yes
  • ☐ D. Row 2: No
  • ☐ E. Row 3: Yes
  • ☐ F. Row 3: No
Show answer and explanation

Response: A,C,F

Final answer: Row 1: Yes; Row 2: Yes; Row 3: No
Only A and B meet the original day and rate requirements, but neither carries 100 alone, and any split needs at least 20 units on A. The least cost is $2,440. Writing A's allocation as a gives total cost 600+20a+18(100−a)=2,400+2a, proving the first judgment. Increasing B's capacity to 100 would permit a single-route plan costing $2,200, with the original arrival day and qualifying historical rate unchanged. Historical rates cannot guarantee this shipment's outcome.

Question 52

A program admits an applicant only if the applicant has both a current license and at least two years of experience. Only admitted applicants may receive the special award. Every award recipient must also have a supervisor recommendation. Recommendations do not guarantee an award, and some admitted applicants receive no award. In Column 1, select a condition that every award recipient must meet. In Column 2, select a case that cannot occur under these rules.
Select exactly one response for Column 1 and exactly one for Column 2. The two selections must satisfy the conditions together; a value may be selected in both columns.
  • ☐ A. Column 1: Necessary award condition: Has a current license.
  • ☐ B. Column 1: Necessary award condition: Has at least four years of experience.
  • ☐ C. Column 1: Necessary award condition: Is admitted without a current license.
  • ☐ D. Column 1: Necessary award condition: Is admitted but receives no award.
  • ☐ E. Column 1: Necessary award condition: Has a recommendation but receives no award.
  • ☐ F. Column 2: Impossible case: Has a current license.
  • ☐ G. Column 2: Impossible case: Has at least four years of experience.
  • ☐ H. Column 2: Impossible case: Is admitted without a current license.
  • ☐ I. Column 2: Impossible case: Is admitted but receives no award.
  • ☐ J. Column 2: Impossible case: Has a recommendation but receives no award.
Show answer and explanation

Response: A,H

Final answer: Column 1: Necessary award condition: Has a current license.; Column 2: Impossible case: Is admitted without a current license.
Follow the admission requirement backward from an award. Every recipient must have been admitted, and admission requires a current license, making that license a necessary condition in the first column. Admission without one is impossible. Four years of experience is stronger than the specified two-year minimum, while admission without an award and a recommendation without an award are explicitly compatible with the rules. Those cases therefore cannot fill the impossible-case column.

Question 53

Five real numbers have arithmetic mean m. What is m?
(1) Their sum is 75.
(2) Their deviations from 15 sum to zero.
Decide whether the statements provide enough information to answer the question. Evaluate each statement separately before combining them.
  • ☐ A. Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ B. Statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ C. Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ D. Each statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ E. The two statements together are not sufficient.
Show answer and explanation

Response: D

Final answer: Each statement alone is sufficient.
Statement (1) directly gives m=75/5=15. Statement (2) says (x1−15)+⋯+(x5−15)=0, so the sum of the numbers is also 75 and the mean is 15. Either statement, taken by itself, fixes the requested mean without requiring the other statement. The individual numbers need not be known.

Question 54

Each point represents one of eight employees, using exact training hours and assessment scores. The vertical scale begins at 40; no point is omitted or superimposed.
024681012405060708090Training hoursAssessment score
Blank 1: Among employees with at least 8 training hours, scored at least 80. Blank 2: The displayed relationship . Select exactly one choice for each blank.
  • ☐ A. Blank 1: 25%
  • ☐ B. Blank 1: 50%
  • ☐ C. Blank 1: 75%
  • ☐ D. Blank 2: establishes that training caused higher scores
  • ☐ E. Blank 2: is consistent with a positive association but does not establish causation
  • ☐ F. Blank 2: shows no association between hours and scores
Show answer and explanation

Response: C,E

Final answer: Blank 1: 75%; Blank 2: is consistent with a positive association but does not establish causation
Filter by hours before counting scores. The four relevant points are (8,75),(8,85),(10,80),(12,90), and three of their scores reach 80, giving 3/4=75%. The threshold includes exactly 80. Across the plotted employees, scores tend to rise with hours, but there is no experiment or control for other differences, so the graph supports a positive association without establishing a causal effect of training.

Question 55

The table records one complete reporting period. Each completed case is among the cases received in its region. No case belongs to more than one region. Completion rate means completed divided by received.
RegionReceivedCompletedMean hours per completed case
A20016010
B1009012
C3002108
D1501209
E504511
F2001507
G1008510
H100809
For each statement, decide whether it is supported by the supplied information. Select exactly one response for each row.
1. The three regions receiving the most cases together completed more than half of all completed cases.
2. B and E have equal completion rates, and no region has a higher completion rate.
3. G completed fewer cases than H.
  • ☐ A. Row 1: Yes
  • ☐ B. Row 1: No
  • ☐ C. Row 2: Yes
  • ☐ D. Row 2: No
  • ☐ E. Row 3: Yes
  • ☐ F. Row 3: No
Show answer and explanation

Response: A,C,F

Final answer: Row 1: Yes; Row 2: Yes; Row 3: No
C, A, and F have the largest received counts and together complete 210+160+150=520 cases, exceeding half of the overall 940. B and E both complete 90%. Their unequal counts produce equal rates, higher than every other region's rate, while G's 85 completed cases exceed H's 80 and disprove the last judgment.

Question 56

Source 1: Original policy. A shipment contains exactly 100 identical units. Divide it between at most two routes, using integer allocations that do not exceed the listed capacities. All units must arrive by day 4. Use only routes with historical on-time rates of at least 95%. Total charges, including one fixed fee for each used route, must not exceed $2,400. There are no other charges, discounts, or routes.
Source 2: Route quotes. Days and charges below are the stipulated planning values; an on-time rate describes past shipments, not a delivery guarantee.
RouteCapacityArrival dayOn-time rateUnit chargeFixed fee
A60395%$20$200
B80497%$18$400
C100599%$16$100
D50294%$22$150
Source 3: Approved amendment. The deadline is changed to day 5. Every other requirement and every route quote remains unchanged.
For each statement, decide whether it is supported by the supplied information. Select exactly one response for each row.
1. Using C alone under the amendment costs $740 less than the least-cost allocation that meets all original requirements except the budget limit.
2. Allocating 40 units to C and 60 to B satisfies every amended requirement.
3. The amendment makes route D eligible.
  • ☐ A. Row 1: Yes
  • ☐ B. Row 1: No
  • ☐ C. Row 2: Yes
  • ☐ D. Row 2: No
  • ☐ E. Row 3: Yes
  • ☐ F. Row 3: No
Show answer and explanation

Response: A,C,F

Final answer: Row 1: Yes; Row 2: Yes; Row 3: No
The cheapest split meeting the original day, rate, and capacity conditions costs $2,440, while C alone under the amendment costs $1,700, saving $740. The proposed C--B split also qualifies. Its charge is 40(16)+60(18)+100+400=$2,220, and both routes meet the day-5 and historical-rate limits. D's 94% remains below the unchanged cutoff.

Question 57

The real numbers x,y are positive. Is x/y>2?
(1) x>10.
(2) y<5.
Decide whether the statements provide enough information to answer the question. Evaluate each statement separately before combining them.
  • ☐ A. Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ B. Statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ C. Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ D. Each statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ E. The two statements together are not sufficient.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Test each statement with both possible answers. Under statement (1), x=12 with y=3 gives yes, and with y=8 gives no, whereas under statement (2), y=4 with x=12 gives yes, and with x=4 gives no. Neither suffices alone. Combining them and using positivity gives x/y>10/y>10/5=2, so the answer is always yes even though the exact values remain unknown.

Question 58

A fund distributes exactly $360 between project X and project Y, with no remainder. Project X receives twice as much as Y. Select the allocation to X in Column 1 and the allocation to Y in Column 2.
Select exactly one response for Column 1 and exactly one for Column 2. The two selections must satisfy the conditions together; a value may be selected in both columns.
  • ☐ A. Column 1: X allocation: $90
  • ☐ B. Column 1: X allocation: $120
  • ☐ C. Column 1: X allocation: $180
  • ☐ D. Column 1: X allocation: $240
  • ☐ E. Column 1: X allocation: $270
  • ☐ F. Column 2: Y allocation: $90
  • ☐ G. Column 2: Y allocation: $120
  • ☐ H. Column 2: Y allocation: $180
  • ☐ I. Column 2: Y allocation: $240
  • ☐ J. Column 2: Y allocation: $270
Show answer and explanation

Response: D,G

Final answer: Column 1: X allocation: $240; Column 2: Y allocation: $120
Use the total and ratio together. Substituting X=2Y into X+Y=360 gives 3Y=360, so Y receives $120 and X $240, the two selections for one allocation. Equal amounts would use the full fund but fail the ratio.

Question 59

Quotes apply to an order of exactly 100 identical units. Total charge is 100 times the unit price plus the listed shipping fee. A supplier is eligible only if its total charge is at most $1,000, delivery takes at most 4 days, and its historical defective-unit rate is at most 1.5%. These are the only eligibility conditions; equality at any cutoff is allowed.
SupplierUnit priceShipping feeDelivery daysDefective rate
A$9.00$10041.5%
B$8.00$24051.0%
C$10.00$030.8%
D$7.00$35062.0%
E$9.50$5041.0%
F$8.50$18032.5%
G$11.00$020.5%
H$8.00$15041.8%
For each statement, decide whether it is supported by the supplied information. Select exactly one response for each row.
1. Exactly three suppliers are eligible.
2. H is eligible because its total charge is lower than the total charge of every eligible supplier.
3. C has the shortest delivery time among the eligible suppliers.
  • ☐ A. Row 1: Yes
  • ☐ B. Row 1: No
  • ☐ C. Row 2: Yes
  • ☐ D. Row 2: No
  • ☐ E. Row 3: Yes
  • ☐ F. Row 3: No
Show answer and explanation

Response: A,D,E

Final answer: Row 1: Yes; Row 2: No; Row 3: Yes
The eligible suppliers are A, C, and E, each with total cost $1,000 and both delivery and defect figures at or within their limits. H fails the defect cutoff. Its low $950 price cannot compensate for 1.8% defects. C delivers in 3 days, faster than A and E at 4.

Question 60

The graph gives the exact cumulative number of orders completed since opening. Counts increase linearly within each plotted interval.
02590121842Hours since openingCumulative orders
Blank 1: The number completed from hour 5 to hour 9 is times the number completed from hour 0 to hour 2. Blank 2: The mean completion rate over the full nine hours is orders per hour. Select exactly one choice for each blank.
  • ☐ A. Blank 1: 1/2
  • ☐ B. Blank 1: 1
  • ☐ C. Blank 1: 2
  • ☐ D. Blank 2: 14/3
  • ☐ E. Blank 2: 6
  • ☐ F. Blank 2: 7
Show answer and explanation

Response: C,D

Final answer: Blank 1: 2; Blank 2: 14/3
Subtract the cumulative counts. The first interval adds 12−0=12 orders and the last adds 42−18=24, making the latter count twice the former. Their durations differ. Although both intervals have rate 6 orders per hour, the last lasts four hours and the first lasts two. The overall rate is 42/9=14/3 orders per hour. Here the unweighted mean of rates 6, 2, and 6 happens to give the same result, but unequal interval lengths generally require weighting.

Question 61

The real number x is not zero. Is x>1?
(1) x+1/x=5.
(2) x>0.5.
Decide whether the statements provide enough information to answer the question. Evaluate each statement separately before combining them.
  • ☐ A. Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ B. Statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ C. Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ D. Each statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ E. The two statements together are not sufficient.
Show answer and explanation

Response: C

Final answer: Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Keep the two roots of statement (1). Multiplying by nonzero x gives x2−5x+1=0, whose roots (5+21)/2 and (5−21)/2 are about 4.79 and 0.21, so that statement allows either answer. Statement (2) alone also allows both. Values 0.75 and 2 satisfy its bound but fall on opposite sides of 1. Combining the statements excludes the lower root, since 21>4 makes (5−21)/2<0.5, and the bound in statement (2) does not allow a value that small. Only the larger root remains.

Question 62

A library introduced reservation reminders and then observed fewer uncollected reservations. Its director attributes the entire decline to the reminders. In Column 1, select the finding that most strongly supports a causal contribution from reminders. In Column 2, select the finding that most directly limits attributing the entire before-and-after decline to reminders alone. Treat each finding as true and otherwise use only the information supplied.
Select exactly one response for Column 1 and exactly one for Column 2. The two selections must satisfy the stated roles; the same candidate may be used in both columns if warranted.
  • ☐ A. Column 1: Strengthens: During the same period, a new fee was also introduced for leaving reservations uncollected.
  • ☐ B. Column 1: Strengthens: In a randomized test with identical fees and pickup rules, users sent reminders left fewer reservations uncollected than users sent none.
  • ☐ C. Column 1: Strengthens: Surveyed users who collected their books often said that a reminder helped them remember the pickup.
  • ☐ D. Column 1: Strengthens: The total number of reservations increased during the period even though the number left uncollected fell.
  • ☐ E. Column 1: Strengthens: The time allowed for collecting a reservation was unchanged when reminders were introduced.
  • ☐ F. Column 2: Limits: During the same period, a new fee was also introduced for leaving reservations uncollected.
  • ☐ G. Column 2: Limits: In a randomized test with identical fees and pickup rules, users sent reminders left fewer reservations uncollected than users sent none.
  • ☐ H. Column 2: Limits: Surveyed users who collected their books often said that a reminder helped them remember the pickup.
  • ☐ I. Column 2: Limits: The total number of reservations increased during the period even though the number left uncollected fell.
  • ☐ J. Column 2: Limits: The time allowed for collecting a reservation was unchanged when reminders were introduced.
Show answer and explanation

Response: B,F

Final answer: Column 1: Strengthens: In a randomized test with identical fees and pickup rules, users sent reminders left fewer reservations uncollected than users sent none.; Column 2: Limits: During the same period, a new fee was also introduced for leaving reservations uncollected.
Random assignment with identical fees and pickup rules supplies the strongest comparison for a reminder effect. A simultaneous new fee, however, prevents attributing the entire original decline to reminders alone. Collector recollections and unchanged procedures offer weaker support, while growing demand rules out fewer reservations without isolating the specific cause.

Question 63

Quotes apply to an order of exactly 100 identical units. Total charge is 100 times the unit price plus the listed shipping fee. A supplier is eligible only if its total charge is at most $1,000, delivery takes at most 4 days, and its historical defective-unit rate is at most 1.5%. These are the only eligibility conditions; equality at any cutoff is allowed.
SupplierUnit priceShipping feeDelivery daysDefective rate
A$9.00$10041.5%
B$8.00$24051.0%
C$10.00$030.8%
D$7.00$35062.0%
E$9.50$5041.0%
F$8.50$18032.5%
G$11.00$020.5%
H$8.00$15041.8%
For each statement, decide whether it is supported by the supplied information. Select exactly one response for each row.
1. Every supplier offering delivery within 3 days has a defective-unit rate of at most 1.5%.
2. Every supplier charging at most $1,000 in total meets the defective-unit cutoff.
3. At least one supplier with no shipping fee is eligible.
  • ☐ A. Row 1: Yes
  • ☐ B. Row 1: No
  • ☐ C. Row 2: Yes
  • ☐ D. Row 2: No
  • ☐ E. Row 3: Yes
  • ☐ F. Row 3: No
Show answer and explanation

Response: B,D,E

Final answer: Row 1: No; Row 2: No; Row 3: Yes
F disproves the first universal claim by delivering in 3 days with 2.5% defects, and H disproves the second with a $950 total charge but 1.8% defects. One counterexample defeats each universal claim. C establishes the final statement because it has no shipping fee and meets all eligibility limits.

Question 64

The positive integers a,b describe two batch sizes. What is a+b?
(1) a+b=3(a−b).
(2) ab is a multiple of 8.
Decide whether the statements provide enough information to answer the question. Evaluate each statement separately before combining them.
  • ☐ A. Statement (1) alone is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ B. Statement (2) alone is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
  • ☐ C. Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ D. Each statement alone is sufficient.
  • ☐ E. The two statements together are not sufficient.
Show answer and explanation

Response: E

Final answer: The two statements together are not sufficient.
Statement (1) fixes a ratio. Rearranging a+b=3a−3b gives a=2b, and positive integer choices of b still generate different sums. Statement (2) alone likewise leaves multiple possible pairs. They remain nonunique together. Both (4,2) and (8,4) have a=2b and products divisible by 8, yet their sums are 6 and 12, proving that even the combined information cannot determine the requested total.