CAPM Practice Test

Original CAPM practice: 150 questions, 180 total answering minutes and 15 editorial pilot items. Complete and review Questions 1--75 before starting the 10-minute break. Starting the break permanently closes that section; you cannot return to its questions during or after the break. Then continue with Questions 76--150. The 180-minute budget is shared, with no fixed 90-minute section allowance. This booklet does not reproduce official software or predict an official score.

An incremental project will revisit next year's requirements after user feedback. Its next release still needs agreed acceptance criteria and a traceable record of approved decisions. How should the analyst organize the documentation?

• ☐ A. Approve the entire next-year specification first and apply its original detail to every subsequent release.
• ☐ B. Elaborate near-term requirements and maintain the decision record, then refine later requirements as evidence develops.
• ☐ C. Carry the original requirements baseline forward and record user feedback separately until the final project review.
• ☐ D. Document each delivered feature after acceptance, using the running software as the sole record during development.

At a reporting date, a project has planned value of $48,000, earned value of $42,000 and actual cost of $45,000. What is its cost variance?

• ☐ A. -$3,000
• ☐ B. +$6,000
• ☐ C. -$6,000
• ☐ D. +$3,000

Use the roadmap and its dependency labels. Select the release card containing the direct prerequisite for shipment tracking.

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

Record the label of the selected region.

An adaptive software team must retain legally required validation records. A member argues that preferring working software means the records should be omitted. What is the best interpretation?

• ☐ A. Omit the records whenever a working feature is available.
• ☐ B. Keep the required records while using working software and feedback to guide delivery.
• ☐ C. Stop incremental delivery until every possible document has been completed.
• ☐ D. Let each developer decide which legal records are worth keeping.

A system is technically complete, but the support team has not received operating instructions or practiced its recovery procedure. Operations takes responsibility next week. What should the project team address before transition?

• ☐ A. Extend the project team's technical test cycle and treat its passing results as evidence of support readiness.
• ☐ B. Transfer responsibility on the agreed date and add the missing instructions to the next operational improvement backlog.
• ☐ C. Obtain final acceptance from the sponsor and schedule the support team's recovery practice after operations takes responsibility.
• ☐ D. Arrange the operating instructions and recovery practice with the receiving support team before handover.

A facility project has agreed specifications, established construction methods and a required sequence of inspections. Stakeholders expect little scope change and need an early integrated cost and schedule plan. Which approach is best supported by these characteristics?

• ☐ A. An incremental approach that approves cost and sequencing separately for each newly selected facility component.
• ☐ B. A predictive approach with early planning and controlled review of changes.
• ☐ C. A hybrid approach that defers design choices to trade-level iterations while fixing only inspection milestones.
• ☐ D. An adaptive approach that establishes facility scope through successive construction increments and feedback.

Several Agile Teams contribute to one large product and need a shared business mission, coordinated planning and integrated demonstrations. Which SAFe construct directly organizes this team-of-teams delivery?

• ☐ A. A team-level Iteration Planning event used to agree on near-term work.
• ☐ B. An Agile Release Train.
• ☐ C. A Scrum of Scrums meeting used to raise cross-team impediments.
• ☐ D. A Lean Portfolio Management function used to align investment with strategy.

Which description best represents the purpose of a user story?

• ☐ A. A structured sequence of actor-system interactions that records a success path and its alternate flows.
• ☐ B. A concise description of desired functionality from a user perspective, developed through discussion and confirmation.
• ☐ C. A detailed interface specification that defines field formats and message handling for implementation.
• ☐ D. A release acceptance checklist that records the evidence used to approve the completed product.

During refinement, Developers find that a high-priority Product Backlog item is too large to complete within one Sprint. The Product Owner still wants its value delivered soon. What should the team do?

• ☐ A. Select it unchanged and extend the Sprint until it is finished.
• ☐ B. Treat each technical phase as a finished Increment even if no usable result exists.
• ☐ C. Break down and clarify the item into smaller pieces suitable for selection and completion within a Sprint.
• ☐ D. Remove the item solely because it cannot fit in its current form.

Developers need precise interface behavior, while customer service leaders need to understand how the proposed behavior changes claim handling. What should the analyst do?

• ☐ A. Use audience-appropriate explanations and models while preserving the same agreed requirement.
• ☐ B. Prepare a business summary that omits disputed interface behavior so the service leaders can approve sooner.
• ☐ C. Present the interface model to both groups and ask customer service to use its technical terms for approval.
• ☐ D. Seek separate sign-offs on independently revised descriptions, then reconcile any differences during implementation.

A project manager in a matrix organization needs two engineers for planned design work. Their functional manager also assigns their departmental work. Both managers have defined authority over resource assignments. What should the project manager do?

• ☐ A. Ask the sponsor to assign both engineers to the project before discussing their departmental commitments.
• ☐ B. Coordinate with the functional manager to agree on availability and assignments for the planned work.
• ☐ C. Ask the engineers to choose which manager's work to perform and update the project forecast from their choices.
• ☐ D. Reserve the engineers against the approved schedule and send the functional manager the allocation afterward.

A test passed for the original rule allowing a maximum of ten records. The approved requirement now permits twenty records. What should the analyst recognize about the existing result?

• ☐ A. It does not by itself verify the new twenty-record behavior.
• ☐ B. Mark the requirement verified using the approval record and attach the earlier test as supporting documentation.
• ☐ C. Reclassify the earlier result as failed because changing the limit invalidates its original ten-record finding.
• ☐ D. Retain the passed result as full verification because the approved change alters a limit rather than the underlying function.

A plan assumes the same specialist will perform two full-time activities during the same week. Each activity needs that specialist throughout, and there is no substitute. Which planning problem should be resolved?

• ☐ A. A resource-cost assumption that can be corrected by charging one assignment to a different cost account.
• ☐ B. A duration estimate that can be shortened for both activities while retaining the same specialist and workload.
• ☐ C. A schedule dependency that can be resolved by changing the links while keeping both full-time assignments in the same week.
• ☐ D. An infeasible resource allocation that affects the schedule.

A similar completed project recorded that an approval handoff was missed until user testing. How should the analyst use that lesson in the new requirements effort?

• ☐ A. Adopt the previous project's handoff requirement and seek confirmation only when the new product reaches testing.
• ☐ B. Add the omitted handoff to the current scope baseline before checking whether the departments have the same responsibilities.
• ☐ C. Record the lesson as a delivery risk and defer the handoff discussion until the implementation team is selected.
• ☐ D. Check whether a comparable handoff applies and include the relevant stakeholders and requirements if it does.

A Product Owner asks a business analyst to write and clarify some Product Backlog items. The analyst does that work. Who remains accountable for effective Product Backlog management in Scrum?

• ☐ A. The business analyst, because writing the items transfers the accountability.
• ☐ B. The Developers collectively, because they estimate and implement the selected items.
• ☐ C. The Product Owner
• ☐ D. The Scrum Master, because the Scrum Master is accountable for all backlog content.

All four requirements in the traceability graphic need passing test evidence before release. Select the row that prevents readiness from being established.

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

Record the label of the selected region.

A project has earned $36,000 of budgeted work value by a date when $40,000 was planned. Actual cost is $34,000. Which statement correctly interprets schedule variance?

• ☐ A. Schedule variance is +$2,000, meaning the project finishes two days early.
• ☐ B. Schedule variance is -$6,000, calculated by subtracting planned value from actual cost.
• ☐ C. Schedule variance is -$4,000, showing a $4,000 shortfall in completed budgeted work at the reporting date.
• ☐ D. Schedule variance is +$4,000, meaning more work has been completed than planned.

Match each Scrum artifact with its commitment. Artifacts: 1. Product Backlog; 2. Sprint Backlog; 3. Increment. Commitments: A. Definition of Done; B. Product Goal; C. Sprint Goal. Use each commitment once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

Requirements for next month are well understood, while a possible capability for next year still needs research. How should the roadmap reflect that difference?

• ☐ A. Show greater detail for nearer work and less detail for the uncertain later capability.
• ☐ B. Give both horizons the same detailed feature commitments so stakeholders can compare releases on equal terms.
• ☐ C. Remove the tentative capability from the roadmap and keep it only in the research team's working notes.
• ☐ D. Show the later capability as a committed feature with a precise date, recording its uncertainty in the risk register.

During a meeting to approve an installation sequence, a participant raises a useful idea about next year's staff training. The idea does not affect today's decision. What should the facilitator do?

• ☐ A. Capture it for appropriate later follow-up and return to the installation objective.
• ☐ B. Ask for an immediate vote on the training idea to close that topic before discussing the installation sequence.
• ☐ C. Add training design to the meeting's approval criteria so both decisions can be resolved with the same attendees.
• ☐ D. Ask the participant to develop the training proposal during the meeting, then return to the installation decision.

Three departments have interdependent requirements and disagree about the handoff between them. Their representatives can meet together. Which method best supports joint resolution?

• ☐ A. A facilitated requirements workshop involving the relevant departments.
• ☐ B. Prototype one department's preferred interface and use a demonstration to obtain the others' approval.
• ☐ C. Interview each department separately and choose the handoff supported by the greatest number of representatives.
• ☐ D. Circulate a draft interface requirement for written sign-off and leave conflicting comments for implementation review.

A communications plan assigns a weekly cost forecast to the finance lead through the approved reporting portal. The associate has prepared the forecast. Which action applies that plan?

• ☐ A. Upload the forecast on time and notify the sponsor instead of routing it to the finance lead for review.
• ☐ B. Email the finance lead when the forecast is ready and upload it to the portal at the next milestone review.
• ☐ C. Submit the forecast through the portal to the finance lead at the planned reporting time.
• ☐ D. Wait for the project manager's next status meeting and include the forecast with that meeting's materials.

An analyst needs to describe how a user and system interact to complete a refund, including the normal flow and exception when payment fails. Which representation is most suitable?

• ☐ A. A requirements traceability matrix linking the refund requirement to a design element and test identifier.
• ☐ B. A use case with the success flow and relevant alternate or exceptional paths.
• ☐ C. A user story stating the user's refund goal without elaborating its interaction or exception behavior.
• ☐ D. A data dictionary defining the refund fields and their formats without describing the interaction sequence.

A company wants a Scrum Team to deliver a usable ordering feature. Its proposed team contains only analysts; every implementation and testing request would wait in separate departmental queues. Which change best supports the proposed team responsibility?

• ☐ A. Measure the analysts by the number of requests sent to other departments.
• ☐ B. Keep the analyst-only team and use more detailed requests to the other queues.
• ☐ C. Provide a cross-functional team with the capabilities needed to produce a usable Increment.
• ☐ D. Assign a manager to approve each handoff without changing access to skills.

Read the comic. What conclusion about acceptance is supported by the reported result?

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

• ☐ A. Successful execution does not establish acceptance because a required field is missing.
• ☐ B. Treat the execution test as sufficient acceptance evidence and record the missing field as a subsequent enhancement.
• ☐ C. Revise the acceptance criterion to the three generated fields and retain the existing result as a passing test.
• ☐ D. Accept the export function provisionally because its processing succeeded, without retesting the mandatory content.

A simple unconstrained project has two independent start-to-finish paths, each 15 days long. No shorter path exists. Management shortens one path to 13 days and leaves the other unchanged. What is the resulting project duration?

• ☐ A. 13 days
• ☐ B. 28 days
• ☐ C. 15 days
• ☐ D. 14 days

Which two practices support analysis in an adaptive project? Select two.

• ☐ A. Carry the original release requirements forward unchanged until the final project acceptance review.
• ☐ B. Complete and baseline all future requirement detail before collecting feedback from the first release.
• ☐ C. Defer acceptance criteria until the implemented feature is demonstrated to its users.
• ☐ D. Use relevant feedback from delivered increments to review future requirements.
• ☐ E. Refine upcoming work as it approaches implementation.

An organization configures and launches a new returns portal by December. After launch, a service team processes customer returns through it every day. Which statement correctly distinguishes the work?

• ☐ A. The recurring processing becomes a project whenever the service team applies a new procedure.
• ☐ B. The launch and recurring processing are both operations because the same organization staffs the work.
• ☐ C. The launch and recurring processing are both projects because each creates a completed customer outcome.
• ☐ D. The portal launch is a project, and the recurring returns processing is operations.

A project uses predictive planning for a regulated installation and adaptive development for an uncertain user interface. What should the analyst do?

• ☐ A. Baseline all installation and interface requirements together before permitting either part to begin delivery.
• ☐ B. Refine the interface independently and reconcile its installation constraints during the final integration review.
• ☐ C. Tailor the requirements work and coordination to each part while maintaining consistency across their dependency.
• ☐ D. Use the installation change-control cycle for every interface detail so both parts follow the same analysis cadence.

A team's explicit Kanban policy allows at most three items in its testing state. Three items are already there, one of which is blocked. A fourth development item is ready for testing. The policy specifies no exception. What action best follows the team's WIP control?

• ☐ A. Move the fourth item into testing because completed development takes priority over the state limit.
• ☐ B. Reset the limit to four for this item without discussing or updating the explicit workflow policy.
• ☐ C. Move the fourth item into testing and exclude the blocked item from the WIP count.
• ☐ D. Help resolve or complete current testing work before pulling the fourth item into that state.

An associate needs the current assessed risk events and their owners, together with the agreed process for assessing and reviewing those risks. Which two records directly provide that information? Select two.

• ☐ A. The current risk register with assessed events and assigned owners.
• ☐ B. The stakeholder register describing affected people and their engagement needs.
• ☐ C. The agreed risk management plan describing the response and review process.
• ☐ D. The issue log describing problems that have already occurred.
• ☐ E. The change log describing requests submitted for approval.

In this workflow, work starts when a card enters In progress and finishes when it enters Done. Select the labeled card counted as work in progress under these boundaries.

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

Record the label of the selected region.

The customer has accepted the deliverables. A team member proposes immediately deleting project records and releasing everyone before outstanding contractual closure work is checked. Which action is appropriate?

• ☐ A. Archive the accepted deliverables now and treat the acceptance record as confirmation that all project obligations are closed.
• ☐ B. Complete the applicable closure activities, including contractual checks, records and resource transition.
• ☐ C. Release all project resources after customer acceptance and let procurement complete the remaining contractual checks independently.
• ☐ D. Retain the team until the next operational review, postponing closure documentation until product performance is measured.

Activity K cannot start until both predecessors finish. Their early finish times are elapsed day 9 and elapsed day 14. The relationships are finish-to-start with zero lag. What is K's early start?

• ☐ A. Elapsed day 14
• ☐ B. Elapsed day 23
• ☐ C. Elapsed day 9
• ☐ D. Elapsed day 11.5

Match each action to its primary emphasis: 1. Build a shared direction and motivate the team; 2. Establish assignments and compare delivery with the plan. Emphases: A. Management; B. Leadership. Use each once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

Two groups provide requirements for a shared process, but nobody knows who can approve a conflict between them. What should the analyst clarify?

• ☐ A. The technical preference of the development team that will implement the shared process.
• ☐ B. The relevant stakeholder roles and decision responsibilities.
• ☐ C. The group with the largest number of users, so its representative can approve any conflicting requirement.
• ☐ D. The sequence in which the two groups submitted their requirements and the dates their drafts were recorded.

Read the planning cards. Select the card that represents a milestone.

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

Record the label of the selected region.

Read the comic. What should Ana do next?

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

• ☐ A. Record both interpretations as alternatives and let the development team select one during implementation.
• ☐ B. Adopt the service lead's five-minute target as an approved requirement without confirming its intended conditions.
• ☐ C. Clarify and agree on a measurable timing requirement with the relevant stakeholders.
• ☐ D. Adopt the developer's one-day interpretation because it is the only estimate supplied by the implementation team.

The approved role assignments make the technical lead responsible for accepting engineering results, the sponsor responsible for budget decisions, and procurement responsible for negotiating vendor contracts. The project manager coordinates delivery. A vendor asks the project manager to confirm technical acceptance of a prototype. Which response follows these assignments?

• ☐ A. Confirm technical acceptance personally because the project manager coordinates delivery.
• ☐ B. Send the prototype to the sponsor and ask for a budget approval as the acceptance decision.
• ☐ C. Ask procurement to treat completion of the contract negotiation as technical acceptance.
• ☐ D. Give the prototype evidence to the technical lead and coordinate obtaining the acceptance decision.

A predictive project needs sufficiently developed requirements to support an early integrated scope and delivery plan. How should the analyst contribute?

• ☐ A. Develop the detailed requirements one release at a time after committing to the complete installation budget.
• ☐ B. Gather early stakeholder requirements but allow later clarifications to enter scope without the agreed impact review.
• ☐ C. Use the first requirements draft as the scope baseline and resolve any remaining ambiguity during installation.
• ☐ D. Elicit and analyze the needed requirements early, then manage applicable changes through the agreed controls.

A team knows the business goal but expects user feedback to change which features best achieve it. Small usable releases can be evaluated safely. Which two characteristics support an adaptive approach? Select two.

• ☐ A. The product can be evaluated only after a single completed delivery and its requirements are fixed.
• ☐ B. Delivery must follow a prescribed sequence whose detailed design is settled before work begins.
• ☐ C. The required solution and detailed requirements are stable and already agreed by the key users.
• ☐ D. Usable increments can provide evidence for later choices.
• ☐ E. Requirements are expected to evolve through feedback.

Capability B requires capability A to be usable. Neither exists yet. The roadmap has room for only one of them in the next release. Which sequence respects that dependency?

• ☐ A. Deliver A before B, subject to the relevant value and readiness decisions.
• ☐ B. Split the release effort equally between A and B so both appear on the release forecast without either being usable.
• ☐ C. Select whichever capability has the larger stated benefit and defer the prerequisite decision until release testing.
• ☐ D. Deliver B first and schedule its acceptance after A, even though the release must contain a usable capability.

Read the comic. Which action follows the agreed risk response?

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

• ☐ A. Inform the risk owner of the confirmed trigger and begin the authorized alternate-supplier response.
• ☐ B. Request fresh approval of the alternate-supplier strategy and hold the response despite the existing authorization.
• ☐ C. Ask the first supplier to confirm a revised deadline before notifying the risk owner or activating the alternate source.
• ☐ D. Document the shortage as an issue and defer the response decision until the next scheduled risk review.

An authorized stakeholder requests a new feature after the predictive scope baseline is approved. The request may affect cost and installation dates, and the change-control procedure requires impact review before approval. What should the associate do next?

• ☐ A. Obtain the stakeholder's written confirmation and add the feature before estimating its installation impact.
• ☐ B. Estimate the cost effect and ask the delivery team to absorb any schedule change within the current baseline.
• ☐ C. Ask the sponsor to approve the feature in principle and revise the baseline before completing the impact review.
• ☐ D. Record the change request and support the required impact review through the agreed procedure.

A project manager asks an associate to lead a specialist testing activity. The associate understands the product but has never used the required testing method. A qualified specialist can supervise, and the manager is willing to adjust the assignment. Which response best supports a responsible decision?

• ☐ A. Accept the full assignment and arrange informal coaching without telling the manager about the gap.
• ☐ B. Accept because product knowledge is sufficient to replace experience with the specified testing method.
• ☐ C. Explain the qualification gap and agree on qualified supervision and an appropriate scope before accepting.
• ☐ D. Refuse any participation because an unfamiliar method prevents the associate from taking a developmental role.

A report shows SPI = 1.08. The current network schedule also shows a critical-path activity delayed by four days with no available float, and no recovery action is planned. What should the associate report?

• ☐ A. Use the positive SPI to offset the four-day critical-path delay in the completion forecast without a recovery plan.
• ☐ B. Treat SPI and the network delay as inconsistent results and withhold both until the next earned-value report.
• ☐ C. Report an ahead-of-schedule finish because SPI exceeds one, recording the delayed activity only as a local task issue.
• ☐ D. Report SPI = 1.08 alongside the four-day critical-path delay that threatens the completion date.

A coordinator needs to check which individuals are affected by a migration and the roles they hold. Which record most directly provides that identification information?

• ☐ A. The stakeholder register
• ☐ B. The issue log
• ☐ C. The risk register
• ☐ D. The cost baseline

The diagram shows four zero-lag finish-to-start branches between the same Start and Finish milestones. Resources are unconstrained, and no external dates apply. Select the labeled branch that controls the earliest Finish.

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

Record the label of the selected region.

A product team needs to communicate the direction of its service and the sequence of intended capabilities across upcoming releases. Which artifact best serves that purpose?

• ☐ A. A project charter authorizing the initiative and identifying its high-level purpose.
• ☐ B. A release test plan specifying how the next delivered product will be verified.
• ☐ C. A product roadmap
• ☐ D. A Product Backlog ordering the individual items available for future team work.

The schedule assumes a supplier will provide a test device on Monday. The supplier has not confirmed the date, and delay would affect testing. What should the associate do?

• ☐ A. Retain Monday as a confirmed schedule input because the supplier has not proposed a different date.
• ☐ B. Add schedule contingency without seeking confirmation or recording the assumption behind the testing date.
• ☐ C. Record and validate the assumption, considering the related delivery risk.
• ☐ D. Record a delivery issue as already occurred and apply the response for a missed Monday shipment.

An adaptive team delivers usable increments and expects feedback to refine its understanding of user needs. What role should requirements analysis play?

• ☐ A. Use increment feedback to update status reports while preserving all original future requirement detail unchanged.
• ☐ B. Finish requirements analysis before the first increment and use the later reviews only to confirm delivery against that initial detail.
• ☐ C. Continue as work is refined and feedback informs the next product decisions.
• ☐ D. Define upcoming acceptance conditions only after the corresponding increment has been delivered to its users.

A team keeps a list of selected Product Backlog items and a delivery plan. A new Developer asks where to find the purpose that ties those items together for the current Sprint. Which component supplies that purpose?

• ☐ A. The Product Goal associated with the Product Backlog.
• ☐ B. The ordered Product Backlog items selected for the Sprint.
• ☐ C. The Definition of Done associated with the Increment.
• ☐ D. The Sprint Goal within the Sprint Backlog.

A team identifies a possible permit delay. Its probability and impact are estimated, and an owner is assigned to assess a response. Where should the associate document this uncertain event and the related information?

• ☐ A. In the assumption log recording timely permit approval as a planning premise.
• ☐ B. In the risk register
• ☐ C. In the stakeholder register recording the permitting agency's role.
• ☐ D. In the issue log describing a permit delay as an existing problem.

Users find it hard to explain the desired screen layout, but they can react to examples. Which technique directly supports clarifying that requirement?

• ☐ A. Create the full production screen from the analyst's interpretation before seeking user feedback.
• ☐ B. Conduct another written questionnaire using the same layout questions the users have difficulty explaining.
• ☐ C. Select a familiar layout from a previous product and ask users to approve it after implementation.
• ☐ D. Review a suitable prototype with users and use their feedback to refine the requirement.

An associate is learning to maintain the issue log. The manager reviews the first entries, asks the associate to explain the classifications and gives specific feedback for the next update. Which role is being illustrated?

• ☐ A. Instructor delivering a prepared lesson on the issue-log procedure.
• ☐ B. Facilitator coordinating agreement among people with conflicting classifications.
• ☐ C. Mentor providing long-term career guidance from personal experience.
• ☐ D. Coach

An activity has early start 5, early finish 9, late start 8 and late finish 12, all in elapsed working days. The earliest start of any immediate successor is 10. Using zero-lag finish-to-start relationships, what are its total float and free float?

• ☐ A. Total float 1 day; free float 3 days.
• ☐ B. Total float 7 days; free float 5 days.
• ☐ C. Total float 4 days; free float 3 days.
• ☐ D. Total float 3 days; free float 1 day.

The agreed project scope includes installing ten sensors and training the maintenance team. A proposal adds a customer analytics service that is outside those agreed deliverables. What should the associate identify?

• ☐ A. A proposed scope addition that needs evaluation through the applicable change process.
• ☐ B. A quality correction that brings the installed sensors into compliance with the agreed acceptance criteria.
• ☐ C. Progressive elaboration that details the sensor installation already authorized by the scope.
• ☐ D. An operational transition activity that supplies the maintenance training already included.

Which TWO inputs should Developers consider when forecasting how much Product Backlog work they can complete in a coming Sprint?

• ☐ A. Their past performance.
• ☐ B. Their upcoming capacity.
• ☐ C. An assumed full-time capacity figure that omits known absences and other commitments.
• ☐ D. The sponsor's requested item count treated as a fixed delivery commitment.
• ☐ E. Other teams' completed item counts used directly without checking comparability.

During a review, an associate notices that criticism of the estimate makes them defensive. They pause to identify their own reaction before responding. Which aspect of emotional intelligence is most directly illustrated?

• ☐ A. Relationship management through negotiating agreement between the participants.
• ☐ B. Self-awareness
• ☐ C. Self-management through deliberate regulation of an outward response.
• ☐ D. Social awareness through recognizing another participant's emotional state.

Match each purpose to its record: 1. Link a requirement to its source and verification evidence; 2. Maintain an ordered list of evolving product work; 3. Describe actor-system interactions for a goal. Records: A. Use case; B. Requirements traceability matrix; C. Product Backlog. Use each once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

A team first needs a broad set of possible ways to reduce packaging damage before comparing their feasibility. Which activity most directly supports that initial aim?

• ☐ A. Require each participant to defend a complete business case before their idea enters the candidate list.
• ☐ B. Score each suggestion against cost and feasibility immediately before inviting the next idea.
• ☐ C. Rank the existing proposed solution first and collect ideas only for its implementation.
• ☐ D. Generate candidate ideas without evaluating each one as it is suggested.

A team needs both clear requirements and coordinated delivery planning. Which statement best distinguishes the analyst's focus from the project manager's focus?

• ☐ A. The analyst owns the overall delivery schedule, while the manager defines the detailed user requirements.
• ☐ B. The analyst manages supplier assignments, while the manager independently resolves the meaning of every requirement.
• ☐ C. The analyst supports understanding business needs and requirements, while the manager coordinates project delivery toward its objectives.
• ☐ D. The analyst approves the business funding, while the manager obtains final product acceptance from users.

An agreed response calls for booking an alternate warehouse if the confirmed delivery forecast moves beyond Friday. The supplier now confirms Thursday, while the risk review shows that a further delay has become more likely. Which action is supported by these facts?

• ☐ A. Update the risk owner with the Thursday forecast and changed likelihood, and continue monitoring the agreed trigger.
• ☐ B. Book the alternate warehouse immediately because any increase in likelihood satisfies the Friday trigger.
• ☐ C. Revise the trigger to Thursday without approval so the existing response can begin today.
• ☐ D. Close the delivery risk because the confirmed forecast is still earlier than the trigger date.

A release requires satisfaction of defined acceptance criteria and stakeholder acceptance under the agreed process. Which two results directly support readiness? Select two.

• ☐ A. A release forecast approved before the acceptance evidence became available.
• ☐ B. A completed activity checklist with the required acceptance tests still awaiting execution.
• ☐ C. An implementation report confirming the features were built without the required acceptance decision.
• ☐ D. The required stakeholder acceptance has been obtained through the agreed process.
• ☐ E. Applicable evidence shows the required criteria are met.

Match each activity to the process group that best describes its purpose. Activities: 1. Formally authorize a new project; 2. Develop the integrated plan; 3. Perform the planned project work; 4. Compare performance and address deviations; 5. Complete formal closure. Groups: A. Executing; B. Closing; C. Planning; D. Monitoring and Controlling; E. Initiating. Use each group once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

A sponsor identifies a business need, the project manager coordinates delivery, and users describe conflicting claim-processing rules. Which contribution most directly belongs to the business analyst's requirements role?

• ☐ A. Set the overall project schedule independently of the manager and delivery team.
• ☐ B. Elicit and analyze the rules with stakeholders to establish a shared, usable requirements description.
• ☐ C. Authorize the additional funding before the sponsor reviews the business case.
• ☐ D. Approve the delivered system on behalf of all users without their agreed acceptance process.

A sponsor funds short iterations but will not make any user representative available until the final release. The proposed product has uncertain usability requirements. Which concern should the associate raise?

• ☐ A. Use team demonstrations to the sponsor as a complete replacement for feedback from people with usability knowledge.
• ☐ B. Treat the short iteration cadence as evidence that the uncertain usability requirements are already being validated.
• ☐ C. The team lacks timely customer feedback needed to resolve usability uncertainty during delivery.
• ☐ D. Delay usability questions until final acceptance because the sponsor has approved incremental funding.

A requirements workshop includes the project sponsor and developers but no representatives of the people who will process claims through the new system. What is the principal concern?

• ☐ A. The developers should hold operational approval authority because they are present at the workshop.
• ☐ B. The team may miss the operational needs and constraints of an affected user group.
• ☐ C. The sponsor's attendance establishes that the claims processors' requirements have already been represented.
• ☐ D. The workshop can settle the operational workflow now and obtain claims-processor feedback only after implementation.

A few vocal participants dominate a problem-solving session. The facilitator wants each person's ideas recorded before group discussion. Which technique best fits?

• ☐ A. Use an open brainstorm and invite quieter participants only after the initial debate has narrowed the proposals.
• ☐ B. Ask the facilitator to shortlist solutions before participants vote on their preferred candidate.
• ☐ C. Individual idea writing followed by round-robin sharing before discussion.
• ☐ D. Hold an immediate anonymous vote on the first proposal and discuss alternatives only if it is rejected.

Match each description with its earned-value measure. Descriptions: 1. Budgeted value of work scheduled by the reporting date; 2. Budgeted value of work actually accomplished; 3. Costs incurred for accomplished work; 4. Expected total cost when the defined scope is completed. Measures: A. Actual cost; B. Estimate at completion; C. Planned value; D. Earned value. Use each measure once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

A governing committee compares unrelated energy, education and transport initiatives, selecting investments that best support its strategic objectives. It does not coordinate them to produce a shared delivery benefit. Which concept best describes its selection activity?

• ☐ A. Program delivery coordination
• ☐ B. Routine operations scheduling
• ☐ C. Portfolio management
• ☐ D. Managing one project phase

In the current unconstrained network, a noncritical activity has 4 days of total float. Its duration increases by 2 days, with no other changes. Which conclusion is supported?

• ☐ A. The delay can use 2 days of available total float without delaying the current project completion date.
• ☐ B. The project completion date must move by 2 days.
• ☐ C. The activity's immediate successors cannot be affected, regardless of its free float.
• ☐ D. The activity gains 2 additional days of total float because its duration increased.

A requirements discussion produces an agreed exception-handling rule. What should the analyst record so implementation teams can use it accurately?

• ☐ A. Record the original draft with a note that stakeholders discussed it, without incorporating the agreed rule.
• ☐ B. Record the final behavior alone and omit the conditions that determine when the exception applies.
• ☐ C. The agreed rule, relevant conditions and applicable decision or approval information.
• ☐ D. Record the preferred implementation approach and let developers infer the exception rule from that design.

Which description identifies a work package in a project WBS?

• ☐ A. A higher-level WBS element used to group and integrate several subordinate packages for control.
• ☐ B. An individual schedule activity with defined relationships and dates, regardless of its position in the WBS.
• ☐ C. A lowest-level portion of defined work for which cost, effort, duration and resources can be estimated and managed.
• ☐ D. A future-work component retained above the detailed package level until later planning elaborates it.

Read the three-panel comic. What should Omar do first?

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

• ☐ A. Clarify Nia's availability and the team's coordination needs before reviewing the meeting arrangement.
• ☐ B. Ask the other team members to vote on the current meeting time before clarifying Nia's constraints.
• ☐ C. Keep the schedule for this cycle and ask Nia to document the effect at the next retrospective.
• ☐ D. Arrange separate weekend attendance for Nia before checking how the team needs to coordinate.

Continue with Questions 76--150 using the remainder of the total 180-minute answering budget. Do not return to Questions 1--75.

The approved total budget is $120,000. Current CPI is 0.80. For this forecast, assume the current cost efficiency continues through the remaining work and the authorized scope stays unchanged. What estimate at completion follows that assumption?

• ☐ A. $144,000
• ☐ B. $120,000
• ☐ C. $96,000
• ☐ D. $150,000

A group is considering adaptive delivery for a product whose requirements will evolve. Which TWO proposed arrangements would directly support frequent learning and adjustment?

• ☐ A. Regular access to users who can give feedback on working increments.
• ☐ B. An empowered cross-functional team able to make day-to-day delivery decisions.
• ☐ C. A central manager must approve each day-to-day adjustment before the team can act on increment feedback.
• ☐ D. Each technical specialty completes its entire project-wide phase before the next specialty begins work.
• ☐ E. User representatives attend final acceptance while the team uses initial assumptions for all interim decisions.

Which TWO records directly support a meaningful earned-value status comparison for a work package?

• ☐ A. Its authorized budget and planned work at the reporting date.
• ☐ B. Reliable evidence of work accomplished and actual costs incurred for that work.
• ☐ C. A revised work list that includes unauthorized additions while leaving the original performance baseline unchanged.
• ☐ D. A cash-payment ledger used in place of incurred costs when performed work has not yet been invoiced.
• ☐ E. A progress estimate set equal to the fraction of the budget spent, without independent evidence of completed work.

Match each statement to its category: 1. A supplier may miss a future shipment; 2. A required shipment has already been missed; 3. Planning treats an unverified site-access estimate as true; 4. Installation may occur only during the approved shutdown. Categories: A. Constraint; B. Assumption; C. Issue; D. Risk. Use each category once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

A proposed design revision reduces material cost but requires a longer installation and additional technician time. The sponsor asks for a decision recommendation. Which analysis best supports integration of the project plan?

• ☐ A. Evaluate the combined scope, cost, schedule, resource and quality effects before recommending the decision.
• ☐ B. Approve the cheaper materials now and ask the installation lead to absorb the additional time within the original dates.
• ☐ C. Assess the longer installation first and retain the original cost forecast because the total scope has not changed.
• ☐ D. Compare the material saving with added technician wages and defer the installation-date assessment until after approval.

A regional organization coordinates separate laboratory, training and distribution projects to obtain service benefits that their independent management would not achieve. What does this coordinated arrangement describe?

• ☐ A. The continuing operation of one laboratory
• ☐ B. A program
• ☐ C. A portfolio selected solely to balance investment across unrelated objectives
• ☐ D. A work package within the laboratory project

During Sprint Planning, a Scrum Team learns that two Developers will be unavailable for half the coming Sprint. Recent Sprint delivery was achieved with everyone present. How should the Developers use that information when selecting work?

• ☐ A. Reduce selection in exact proportion to headcount without considering item size, past performance or completion requirements.
• ☐ B. Use the previous completed-item count unchanged and record the known absences only as a risk to that fixed selection.
• ☐ C. Select the previous amount and ask the Product Owner to relax the completion standard to compensate for the absences.
• ☐ D. Consider the reduced upcoming capacity along with past performance and the Definition of Done when forecasting the work.

A project delivers equipment expected to reduce operating cost over the following year. Which planning question is necessary to evaluate that benefit after the project ends?

• ☐ A. Which equipment acceptance signature will replace the later operating-cost measurement?
• ☐ B. Which approved project budget will be reported as the realized operating saving without a comparison of actual costs?
• ☐ C. Which project completion date will be used as sufficient evidence that the entire annual saving was realized?
• ☐ D. Who will measure the operating-cost result, when, and against which baseline?

A work package has earned value of $24,000 and actual cost of $30,000. What does its cost performance index indicate?

• ☐ A. A CPI of 0.80: the project is 80 percent complete regardless of its total budget.
• ☐ B. A CPI of 1.25: the project will finish 25 percent earlier than planned.
• ☐ C. A CPI of 0.80: $0.80 of budgeted work value was earned per $1.00 spent.
• ☐ D. A CPI of 1.25: $1.25 of budgeted work value was earned per $1.00 spent.

During a competitive procurement, a project team clarifies a mandatory interface requirement for one bidder. The clarification would affect how every bidder prices its proposal. All bidders are authorized to receive requirement information, and the submission deadline has not passed. What should the associate recommend?

• ☐ A. Give the clarification only to bidders who independently ask the same question.
• ☐ B. Wait until proposal scoring to explain the clarification to bidders whose price seems inconsistent.
• ☐ C. Issue the material clarification through the approved channel to all eligible bidders.
• ☐ D. Give the clarification to the lowest-priced bidder first so the team can estimate its cost effect.

Match each question to its primary purpose: 1. Does the built behavior conform to the specified requirement? 2. Does the delivered solution meet the agreed business need? Purposes: A. Validation; B. Verification. Use each once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

A project manager delegates collection of supplier progress data to an associate. Which understanding is appropriate?

• ☐ A. The associate performs the assigned work, while delegation does not automatically transfer the manager's project-level responsibilities.
• ☐ B. The supplier assumes the manager's project reporting responsibility because it provides the underlying data.
• ☐ C. The manager may stop reviewing the progress information once its collection has been delegated.
• ☐ D. The associate becomes responsible for every supplier decision because they now collect the progress information.

Which two pieces of stakeholder information directly support planning requirements work? Select two.

• ☐ A. The earliest submitted requirements draft treated as sufficient evidence of the stakeholder's expertise.
• ☐ B. The most senior job title treated as the decision authority without checking assigned responsibilities.
• ☐ C. Meeting attendance treated as confirmation that the person has approved the recorded requirements.
• ☐ D. The stakeholder's relevant expertise and affected responsibilities.
• ☐ E. The stakeholder's authority in the applicable requirement decisions.

A project faces a funding decision beyond the project manager's delegated authority. Which role provides resources and support and is accountable for enabling project success?

• ☐ A. The business analyst, whose responsibility is to clarify the product requirements.
• ☐ B. The supplier account manager, whose authority applies to the supplier's delivery commitments.
• ☐ C. The project manager, whose delegated authority ends below the funding decision needed here.
• ☐ D. The project sponsor

An analyst plans elicitation for a new service. Which two inputs directly support choosing participants and questions? Select two.

• ☐ A. The relevant business need and agreed scope information.
• ☐ B. A prepared survey reused without examining how its questions relate to the current business need.
• ☐ C. A prior project's participant list copied without checking whether the current service has the same affected groups.
• ☐ D. The existing sponsor-approved timeline treated as a substitute for identifying the people who understand the service.
• ☐ E. Identification of affected stakeholders and their knowledge of the work.

A meeting's objective was to select one of two implementation options. Attendees discussed both, documented the agreed choice and assigned a due date and owner for the next action. Which evidence best supports judging the meeting effective?

• ☐ A. It distributed complete presentation materials before the meeting, regardless of the result obtained.
• ☐ B. It included detailed discussion of both options, even if the choice and follow-up had remained unresolved.
• ☐ C. It followed the planned agenda sequence, regardless of whether a usable decision had been reached.
• ☐ D. It achieved the decision objective and established actionable follow-up.

A predictive project has design, build and installation phases. A manager claims that monitoring and controlling can occur only after the build phase because it must be a separate product phase. Which explanation is correct?

• ☐ A. Monitoring and controlling belongs only at the gate after each product phase, while work within the phase is execution alone.
• ☐ B. Monitoring begins only when execution ends, because comparing performance requires all project work to be finished.
• ☐ C. Management processes such as monitoring and controlling can occur throughout appropriate product phases.
• ☐ D. Design, build and installation replace planning, executing and controlling, so no separate management purposes apply.

A testing activity requires 120 tester-hours within three working days. Each assigned tester can supply 6 productive hours per day, and work is divisible with no coordination loss. What is the minimum whole number of testers required?

• ☐ A. 6 testers
• ☐ B. 8 testers
• ☐ C. 7 testers
• ☐ D. 20 testers

An adaptive backlog item is scheduled for likely implementation next week but has no agreed acceptance criteria. What should the analyst support?

• ☐ A. Assign the previous item's acceptance criteria and confirm their suitability only when this feature is demonstrated.
• ☐ B. Clarify the item and its acceptance criteria with the relevant stakeholders and team before relying on it as ready.
• ☐ C. Use the priority assigned by the Product Owner as confirmation that the missing success conditions are understood.
• ☐ D. Select the item as ready and ask the testing team to infer acceptance criteria from the completed implementation.

A delayed shipment was listed as a possible risk. The supplier now confirms that the shipment missed its required date. What should the associate recognize?

• ☐ A. The event has occurred and now requires issue management as well as updating the related risk information.
• ☐ B. Keep monitoring occurrence probability as the only needed action, without managing the confirmed consequences.
• ☐ C. Close the risk entry and assume the related delivery problem is resolved because its occurrence is now certain.
• ☐ D. Retain the entry solely as a future risk and postpone recording the actual delay until its final cost is known.

Read the three-panel comic. What should the Product Owner and Developers do with the new information while the Sprint Goal remains viable?

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

• ☐ A. Discuss its effect and renegotiate selected scope as needed while preserving the Sprint Goal.
• ☐ B. Cancel the Sprint because any new request makes its original scope forecast invalid.
• ☐ C. Let the Product Owner add the request to the Developers' plan before reviewing its effect on current work.
• ☐ D. Preserve the selected scope unchanged and defer discussion of the new need until product completion.

A team needs a shared description of how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled and closed, including the coordination of relevant subsidiary plans. Which document serves that purpose?

• ☐ A. The product roadmap showing intended capabilities across releases.
• ☐ B. The business case explaining the proposed investment's rationale.
• ☐ C. The project charter authorizing the project and the manager's authority.
• ☐ D. The project management plan

A recent mainline commit causes the automated integration build to fail. The cause is not immediately clear, and other Developers need a healthy shared codebase. What response best supports continuous integration?

• ☐ A. Keep the mainline broken and direct Developers to maintain separate long-lived branches until the iteration ends.
• ☐ B. Restore a working mainline promptly, such as by reverting the faulty commit, while investigating the failure.
• ☐ C. Continue integrating unrelated changes into the failed mainline while diagnosing the original commit.
• ☐ D. Disable the failed checks temporarily and use the displayed successful status as the team's integration result.

Before authorizing a project, leaders want to understand the business need, viable options and expected value. Which document most directly supports that justification?

• ☐ A. The project management plan describing how authorized work will be managed.
• ☐ B. The business case
• ☐ C. The benefits measurement record describing results already achieved after delivery.
• ☐ D. The project charter defining authorization and the project manager's authority.

A delivery breakdown includes account creation, profile editing and preference settings. The team wants an initial usable result for invited users. Which iteration scope best supports that purpose?

• ☐ A. Build the complete database layer for all three features and defer the user interface until the next iteration.
• ☐ B. Build all three interfaces against simulated data and defer actual account creation to a later release.
• ☐ C. Allocate equal effort to each feature's technical components without checking for a complete usable path.
• ☐ D. A small account-creation path with the implementation and checks needed for invited users to use it.

A geographically distributed team will replace a known reporting system using approved stable requirements and an established migration procedure. Which factor most directly supports predictive planning?

• ☐ A. The need to coordinate reporting times across several local working days.
• ☐ B. The geographical separation of the people assigned to the migration.
• ☐ C. The availability of shared collaboration tools for remote status meetings.
• ☐ D. The stable defined requirements and understood delivery method.

A project arranges supplier insurance for a specified financial exposure and separately performs preventive testing to reduce defect probability. Which statement distinguishes the responses?

• ☐ A. Insurance accepts the full exposure internally, while preventive testing shifts financial responsibility to the insurer.
• ☐ B. Insurance avoids the underlying defect event, while preventive testing accepts its probability unchanged.
• ☐ C. Insurance addresses transfer of the specified exposure, while preventive testing mitigates defect probability.
• ☐ D. Insurance mitigates defect probability, while preventive testing transfers the resulting financial exposure.

A Scrum Team's Definition of Done requires security testing. One item is coded and functionally tested, but its security testing is unfinished at the Sprint's end. What is its status under that Definition of Done?

• ☐ A. It is not part of a usable Increment meeting the Definition of Done and returns to the Product Backlog for future consideration.
• ☐ B. It is part of the Increment if the Product Owner accepts the unfinished testing as a future task.
• ☐ C. It is part of the Increment because coding and functional tests account for most of its work.
• ☐ D. It becomes part of the Increment when stakeholders see it at the Sprint Review, even without the required testing.

A quiet team member stops contributing after a change in working hours. The manager wants to understand the reason before proposing a remedy. Which response best supports that aim?

• ☐ A. Ask the entire team for possible explanations and select the most common account before speaking with the member.
• ☐ B. Ask the member privately about the change and listen to their explanation.
• ☐ C. Send a teamwide reminder about participation before discussing the individual's circumstances.
• ☐ D. Reassign the member to a quieter task and use their later performance to infer whether the working-hours change mattered.

A developer using test-driven development has written a test for a small new behavior and confirmed that it fails. What is the next step in the usual cycle?

• ☐ A. Refactor the existing design first while leaving the new behavioral test failing.
• ☐ B. Change the expected result to match the current implementation without adding the required behavior.
• ☐ C. Expand the failing test to cover the remaining features before implementing the small behavior.
• ☐ D. Write the functional code needed to make the test pass.

A quality objective is stated as Make the scan service fast. Which revision gives the team an objectively checkable requirement?

• ☐ A. The scan service should respond promptly during the busiest part of the working day.
• ☐ B. At least 95% of scans must return a result within two seconds under the specified test load.
• ☐ C. The scan service should reduce waiting enough for staff to complete their usual daily workload.
• ☐ D. The scan service should match the speed users expect from comparable products.

A zero-lag, finish-to-start network begins with A, which takes 3 days. B and C both follow A and take 5 and 8 days, respectively. D takes 2 days and follows both B and C. Resources are unconstrained, all days are working days, and no external dates apply. What is the planned project duration?

• ☐ A. 13 days
• ☐ B. 10 days
• ☐ C. 8 days
• ☐ D. 18 days

Read the comic. Which release scope satisfies both stated customer goals within the available capacity?

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

• ☐ A. Rebuild verification and deliver tracking, leaving refunds for a later release.
• ☐ B. Deliver refunds alone and postpone tracking even though its effort fits the remaining capacity.
• ☐ C. Rebuild verification and deliver refunds, reserving shipment tracking for a later release.
• ☐ D. Deliver refunds and shipment tracking, using the existing verification capability.

The agreed governance procedure gives the project manager authority for cost changes up to $5,000. Larger changes require sponsor review. A supported forecast shows an $8,000 change. What should the associate recommend?

• ☐ A. Prepare the evidence and route the change for the required sponsor review.
• ☐ B. Implement the forecast change before review because evidence of the amount establishes approval.
• ☐ C. Ask the project manager to authorize the amount now and obtain sponsor confirmation at the next routine report.
• ☐ D. Divide the same supported change between cost accounts so each entry is within the manager's limit.

A company is replacing its supplier-ordering portal. Which person is an external stakeholder relative to that company?

• ☐ A. A representative employed by a supplier that receives orders through the portal.
• ☐ B. A warehouse employee of the company
• ☐ C. The company's procurement manager
• ☐ D. The company's internal IT support lead

A project is intended to reduce average processing time from ten minutes to six minutes within three months of adoption. Which two elements support evaluating that benefit? Select two.

• ☐ A. The project budget spent used as proof that the expected time saving has been achieved.
• ☐ B. A defined owner and measurement date for the operating result.
• ☐ C. Comparable processing-time data before and after adoption.
• ☐ D. The project's completed-task count used as a substitute for operating-time data.
• ☐ E. The approved deployment date used as the measurement of the later processing-time result.

A reset link must expire 20 minutes after issue and cannot be reused after a successful reset. A link issued at 10:00 is used successfully at 10:12. Which expected test result matches both rules?

• ☐ A. Accept another use at 10:15 and reject an unused link of the same issue time at 10:21.
• ☐ B. Accept another use at 10:15 and accept an unused link of the same issue time at 10:21.
• ☐ C. Reject another use at 10:15 and accept an unused link of the same issue time at 10:21.
• ☐ D. Reject another use at 10:15 and reject an unused link of the same issue time at 10:21.

In a predictive project, a formally approved change adds a required deliverable and its authorized budget. The team starts the approved work, but the status system still compares progress against the old scope and budget. What should the associate recommend?

• ☐ A. Keep the old plan permanently so the approved extra work always appears as a variance.
• ☐ B. Use the new budget without recording the approval or changed scope.
• ☐ C. Incorporate the approved change into the controlled plan and relevant status records before using them for the updated comparison.
• ☐ D. Remove actual costs of the new deliverable from the report to preserve the original comparison.

At the Daily Scrum, Developers find that a testing bottleneck threatens the Sprint Goal. Which TWO actions fit the purpose of this event?

• ☐ A. Inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal.
• ☐ B. Change the Definition of Done during the event to count unfinished tests as completed work.
• ☐ C. Adapt the upcoming work plan to address the bottleneck.
• ☐ D. Replace the goal inspection with a utilization report sent to an outside manager.
• ☐ E. Use the event to obtain individual task assignments from the Product Owner.

The only planned meeting item is to distribute an already approved installation date. No discussion or joint decision is needed, and everyone can access the notification system. What is the most suitable communication choice?

• ☐ A. Ask each recipient to confirm the date in a separate conversation before issuing the notice.
• ☐ B. Send the approved date through the appropriate notification channel.
• ☐ C. Hold a short full-team meeting because approved dates should always be distributed synchronously.
• ☐ D. Wait for the next decision meeting and include the date with that meeting's discussion items.

Match each Sprint Planning concern with its appropriate description. Use each description once: 1. The purpose of this Sprint; 2. What can be done this Sprint; 3. How selected work will get done. Descriptions: A. Developers create the plan needed to produce the Increment; B. The Scrum Team establishes a useful Sprint Goal; C. Developers select items through discussion with the Product Owner.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

A project team develops a high-level plan from early information. After a site survey, it can estimate installation activities more accurately. The agreed planning approach allows later detail without changing the authorized objectives. What should the team do?

• ☐ A. Freeze the early activity estimates until the project ends because elaboration would alter the planning record.
• ☐ B. Elaborate the plan using the new information while applying control to any actual baseline changes.
• ☐ C. Replace the authorized objectives with the site-survey findings before checking whether they change the intended work.
• ☐ D. Update every approved baseline immediately on receiving the survey, without the applicable review.

Users cannot yet agree on the best search filters for a new catalog. They can attend short demonstrations and try working versions. The team can change the software without replacing physical equipment. Which approach best supports learning about those filters?

• ☐ A. Deliver small working increments and use user feedback to adjust subsequent work.
• ☐ B. Write detailed weekly completion reports and defer product demonstrations until release.
• ☐ C. Let each developer choose the filters independently and integrate them at the end.
• ☐ D. Finalize every filter before users try the product, then deliver the complete catalog.

At the end of a requirements meeting, different attendees describe different versions of the decision. What should the facilitator do before closing?

• ☐ A. Restate the proposed decision and confirm the agreed result and next steps with the participants.
• ☐ B. Record all versions as approved alternatives and let developers choose the one they can implement fastest.
• ☐ C. Publish the facilitator's preferred account and invite corrections after implementation begins.
• ☐ D. Use the most senior attendee's account as the agreed decision without confirming it with the group.

In a SAFe Agile Release Train, someone needs to guide participants through PI Planning and help the train improve the flow of value through its events. Which role has that responsibility?

• ☐ A. Product Management, acting as the content authority for the train's product direction.
• ☐ B. System Architect, providing the technical architecture and interface direction.
• ☐ C. A team Scrum Master, supporting the effectiveness of one Agile Team.
• ☐ D. Release Train Engineer.

A manager wants to handle tense stakeholder discussions more effectively. Which two practices directly support emotional intelligence? Select two.

• ☐ A. Let the most senior participant define the manager's response before examining the concerns raised.
• ☐ B. Recognize personal emotional triggers before responding.
• ☐ C. Interpret a quiet response as agreement and close the discussion without checking understanding.
• ☐ D. Treat the strength of the initial emotional reaction as sufficient evidence that the other person intends harm.
• ☐ E. Listen to understand the other person's concerns and perspective.

The project role agreement assigns approval of permanent changes to the invoice process to the process owner. The process manager monitors day-to-day performance, and the analyst documents proposed changes. Who approves a permanent change under this agreement?

• ☐ A. The software supplier solely because the change requires configuration
• ☐ B. The process owner
• ☐ C. The analyst solely because the proposed change is documented
• ☐ D. The process manager solely because daily results are monitored

Match each planning question to its most direct record: 1. How will project communications be managed? 2. What is the product direction across future releases? 3. What approved time-phased budget will project costs be compared with? Records: A. Product roadmap; B. Cost baseline; C. Communications management plan. Use each once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

An analyst wants comparable responses from 600 geographically dispersed users about which of six known reporting problems occurs most often. Which approach is most suitable?

• ☐ A. Unstructured interviews with a few available users, used as the frequency estimate for all 600.
• ☐ B. Observation of one user's workday, used as the comparable response for the whole dispersed group.
• ☐ C. A facilitated workshop with one department, used to rank the frequency for users in every location.
• ☐ D. A clearly designed survey of the relevant users.

Which statement correctly distinguishes the project manager from the sponsor?

• ☐ A. The manager transfers project accountability to the sponsor whenever an unresolved delivery issue occurs.
• ☐ B. The manager leads the project team toward its objectives, while the sponsor provides resources and support to enable success.
• ☐ C. The manager defines user acceptance independently, while the sponsor maintains all detailed activity estimates.
• ☐ D. The manager authorizes the organization's investment, while the sponsor coordinates every daily team assignment.

A changed customer identifier affects both the registration and reporting teams. What should the analyst communicate?

• ☐ A. Send the new identifier to registration and rely on reporting to infer the change from the next generated data file.
• ☐ B. The agreed change and its relevant effects to both teams through the defined coordination process.
• ☐ C. Send the detailed change to reporting after registration has implemented it, without coordinating the shared transition.
• ☐ D. Notify both teams that a requirement changed without describing the identifier behavior or affected interfaces.

A project WBS covers the delivered equipment but omits a required operator-training deliverable included in the approved scope. The schedule was built only from that WBS. What should the associate identify?

• ☐ A. A scope-coverage gap that needs to be addressed before treating the schedule as complete.
• ☐ B. Proof that training is outside scope because it is absent from the WBS.
• ☐ C. A reason to remove training from the approved scope without change review.
• ☐ D. A complete schedule because equipment delivery is the only work that needs planning.

The analyst sends a revised requirement to two implementation teams. What provides the strongest evidence that they understand the changed behavior consistently?

• ☐ A. Count the reviewers who opened the document and use the highest readership figure as confirmation.
• ☐ B. Ask each team to explain the expected behavior using the agreed examples and resolve differences.
• ☐ C. Ask each team to approve the document title without discussing examples of the changed behavior.
• ☐ D. Obtain written acknowledgment that both teams received the revision and treat receipt as consistent understanding.

A project will replace paper purchase approvals with an electronic workflow. Which outcome best represents the organizational change the project is intended to enable?

• ☐ A. The project's technical acceptance record is signed while employees have not yet adopted the workflow.
• ☐ B. The electronic workflow is deployed while purchasing decisions continue through the old paper process.
• ☐ C. Employees consistently use the new approval process to make purchasing decisions.
• ☐ D. The new training materials are complete while the intended operating process remains unchanged.

A Scrum Team finds in its retrospective that slow review of small changes repeatedly delays usable delivery. The team agrees that assigning a rotating reviewer and checking turnaround could help. What should it do with this finding?

• ☐ A. Use the retrospective only to identify the slowest reviewer and leave the agreed process unchanged.
• ☐ B. Change the review arrangement without monitoring turnaround because agreement already proves the improvement.
• ☐ C. Implement an actionable improvement and inspect whether review turnaround improves.
• ☐ D. Record the reviewer proposal and defer trying it until the team has completed the entire product.

A requirement changes from allowing one address to allowing several addresses per account. The team maintains links from that requirement to design elements and test cases. What should the analyst use those links to identify?

• ☐ A. Update the requirement wording and defer examination of its linked design and tests until final acceptance.
• ☐ B. Design and test evidence that may need review because of the changed requirement.
• ☐ C. Treat each linked design element as an automatically approved scope addition.
• ☐ D. Use the old passing results to verify the changed behavior without reviewing the tests they link to.

A Product Owner is ordering two ready items for a release whose agreed objective is to recover lost completed purchases. One repairs a checkout failure affecting many paying users. The other adds a bulk export that saves internal analysts time on weekly reporting. The effort is similar, and no dependency or mandatory deadline favors either item. Which ordering is best supported?

• ☐ A. Place the export first because its internal time saving should take precedence without considering the purchase objective.
• ☐ B. Give the items equal priority because similar effort establishes equal contribution to the release objective.
• ☐ C. Place the checkout repair first because it directly supports the stated release objective.
• ☐ D. Use request arrival order as the sole rule even though the items contribute differently to the agreed objective.

A project coordinator is assigned to score software proposals. One bidder has offered the coordinator a paid weekend consulting role beginning after the purchase. The coordinator has not accepted the offer. Scoring starts tomorrow, and a qualified replacement is available. What should the coordinator do before participating in the decision?

• ☐ A. Ask a teammate to check the completed scores, then disclose the offer before the final award.
• ☐ B. Decline the consulting offer privately, complete the scoring, and disclose it when the award is announced.
• ☐ C. Disclose the offer to the appropriate stakeholders and refrain from influencing the decision until the conflict is appropriately resolved.
• ☐ D. Disclose the offer but continue scoring while stakeholders decide whether mitigation is needed.

A Scrum Team is building the eligibility report needed for a proposed service. The organization withdraws the service, and the Product Owner confirms that the current Sprint Goal is obsolete. Who has authority to cancel this Sprint?

• ☐ A. The Developers collectively, because they own the selected delivery plan.
• ☐ B. The project sponsor directly, because withdrawing the service transfers Scrum cancellation authority to the sponsor.
• ☐ C. The Scrum Master, because facilitating Scrum events includes authority to cancel any Sprint.
• ☐ D. The Product Owner

Testing has verified 80 of 100 agreed acceptance checks. The remaining 20 checks have not been run, and their results are unknown. A sponsor asks whether all acceptance checks have passed. Which answer gives the most accurate account?

• ☐ A. The product failed acceptance because twenty checks have not produced passing results.
• ☐ B. Eighty checks passed; the remaining twenty are untested, so completion of all acceptance checks is not yet established.
• ☐ C. Acceptance is almost complete, so no further detail is needed for the sponsor to assess readiness.
• ☐ D. The product passed acceptance because every check performed so far succeeded.

A Kanban team's workflow defines an item as started when implementation begins and finished when production deployment is complete. An item was requested on day 1, started implementation on day 4, and finished deployment on day 10. Using elapsed days without inclusive counting, what is its cycle time?

• ☐ A. 9 days
• ☐ B. 4 days
• ☐ C. 6 days
• ☐ D. 10 days

Two implementation teams work different shifts and need the exact approved interface specification and its change record. There is no unresolved dispute. The agreed communication procedure uses a version-controlled repository accessible to both teams, with questions handled through a named analyst. Which action best fits this need?

• ☐ A. Send each team an editable private copy without the shared version identifier or change record.
• ☐ B. Send a short change summary instead of the approved specification and let each team infer the exact interface details.
• ☐ C. Schedule a live briefing that only one shift can attend and treat that attendance as distribution to both teams.
• ☐ D. Publish the approved version and change record in the agreed repository, notify both teams and provide the route for questions.

Match each measurement to its Kanban flow metric. Measurements: 1. Count of started, unfinished items; 2. Count of items finished per week; 3. Elapsed time from start until finish; 4. Elapsed time since an unfinished item started. Metrics: A. Cycle time; B. Work item age; C. WIP; D. Throughput. Use each metric once.

Write the matching letter for each numbered prompt.

Two specialists disagree about a proposed installation sequence. The manager asks each to explain the supporting constraints and helps them compare feasible options against the project objective. Which role is the manager primarily exercising?

• ☐ A. Sponsor authorizing additional funding for the chosen installation work.
• ☐ B. Coach helping one specialist develop a personal skill through individual feedback.
• ☐ C. Facilitator
• ☐ D. Technical decision maker independently selecting the installation sequence for the specialists.

The project quality plan requires a documented sample inspection before a production batch is released. The batch is ready, but its required inspection has not occurred. No approved exception exists. What should the associate recommend?

• ☐ A. Release the batch now and complete the required inspection as a post-release check to protect the delivery date.
• ☐ B. Ask the inspection lead to sign the release record before testing, then attach the result when it becomes available.
• ☐ C. Use the supplier's existing confidence statement as the required result without completing the planned inspection.
• ☐ D. Complete the required inspection and document its result before releasing the batch.

After sending a progress report, an associate discovers that one completed-work figure counted the same inspection twice. The error materially overstates progress. The sponsor will use the report tomorrow to decide whether to release the next funding installment. What should the associate do first?

• ☐ A. Ask the inspector to repeat the inspection before notifying the sponsor of the reporting error.
• ☐ B. Wait for the routine reporting cycle and use the corrected figure in the next report.
• ☐ C. Notify the appropriate authority promptly and provide a corrected figure and explanation of its effect.
• ☐ D. Correct the internal workbook now but leave the distributed report until the funding decision is complete.

A solution conforms to every recorded screen requirement, but user trials show that the intended reduction in claim-handling effort has not occurred. Which question should the analyst investigate?

• ☐ A. Whether the passed screen tests alone establish the operating benefit despite the user-trial result.
• ☐ B. Whether the business need should be revised to match the delivered screens before investigating the trial evidence.
• ☐ C. Whether the delivered solution and requirements adequately address the agreed business need.
• ☐ D. Whether the user-trial result can be excluded because it measures an outcome outside screen conformance.

A meeting cannot resolve a design choice because a required load calculation is missing. What should the facilitator record for effective follow-up?

• ☐ A. Schedule another general discussion without assigning responsibility for the missing calculation.
• ☐ B. Record the design choice as provisionally approved and let the implementation team obtain the calculation afterward.
• ☐ C. Record that all options remain acceptable and let each specialist select one independently.
• ☐ D. An assigned owner and due date for obtaining the calculation needed for the decision.

The chart shows actual remaining work and an ideal reference line over five working days. Select the labeled region containing the actual remaining-work point on day 4. The reference line is a planning comparison, not a guarantee of completion.

Scroll the diagram sideways on a narrow screen.

Record the label of the selected region.

A team scores two options from 1 to 5, with higher scores better. Cost has weight 0.6 and reliability 0.4. Option A scores 5 for cost and 2 for reliability. Option B scores 3 for cost and 4 for reliability. Which has the higher weighted score?

• ☐ A. Option B: 3.8 compared with Option A: 3.4.
• ☐ B. Both options: 3.5 because each has a raw total of 7.
• ☐ C. Option A: 3.8 compared with Option B: 3.4.
• ☐ D. Option B: 3.6 compared with Option A: 3.2.

A backlog item states: A user can reserve an available seat and receives confirmation; if no seats remain, the request is rejected without charging the user. Which evidence best demonstrates the stated behavior?

• ☐ A. A test confirms an available reservation but records a charge for the rejected full-capacity request.
• ☐ B. Tests show confirmation for an available seat and rejection without a charge when no seats remain.
• ☐ C. A screenshot shows a reservation button and confirmation text without exercising either availability case.
• ☐ D. A performance test shows fast reservation responses without checking confirmation or rejected-request charging.

An associate is upset by an unexpected change request. They know an immediate angry reply would derail the review. Which response most directly demonstrates self-management?

• ☐ A. Suppress discussion of the project concern entirely rather than return to its factual implications.
• ☐ B. Ask the requester to take responsibility for preventing the associate's emotional reaction.
• ☐ C. Identify that the request triggers anger, then send the original angry reply without regulating it.
• ☐ D. Pause, regulate the reaction and return to a factual discussion of the request.

An analyst needs detailed accounts of how four specialist users handle unusual cases. Each user has different expertise, and follow-up questions are expected. Which method best fits?

• ☐ A. A general workshop that focuses on the most common case and gives no time for each specialist's exceptions.
• ☐ B. A fixed-choice survey designed to produce comparable counts but offering no follow-up exploration.
• ☐ C. Individual stakeholder interviews
• ☐ D. A review of historical reports used in place of asking how these specialists handle their unusual cases.

A proposed project has a business justification but has not been formally authorized. Which artifact provides formal authorization and establishes the manager's authority to apply organizational resources as specified?

• ☐ A. The business case explaining why the investment should be undertaken.
• ☐ B. The project management plan describing how work will be executed and controlled.
• ☐ C. The project charter
• ☐ D. The product roadmap communicating intended capabilities across future releases.

An adaptive team meets two iterations by working every weekend. Management proposes making that schedule permanent. Which response best follows the sustainable-development principle?

• ☐ A. Adjust the workload and way of working so delivery can continue at a maintainable pace.
• ☐ B. Reduce testing time while keeping the same workload and deadlines.
• ☐ C. Keep weekend work as the permanent baseline because two iterations succeeded.
• ☐ D. Set a higher forecast to make the team sustain the same overtime.