Praxis Social Studies (5581): Practice Test 2 Online

Question 1

The Great Migration of the early twentieth century refers to the movement of:

A

European immigrants settling on new farms across the open Great Plains.

B

White southern farmers relocating west during the Dust Bowl.

C

African Americans moving from the rural South to northern cities.

D

Freed people returning to Africa under colonization plans.

Question 2

The National Organization for Women (NOW), founded in 1966, worked chiefly to

A

reverse the entry of women into the paid workforce.

B

reduce federal involvement in matters of gender equality.

C

defend traditional family roles against rapid social change.

D

advance equal rights and opportunities for American women.

Question 3

The Paris Peace Accords of 1973 are best described as an agreement that did which of the following?

A

Formally divided Vietnam into a northern and a southern republic

B

Committed the United States to defend South Vietnam indefinitely

C

Transferred command of the war effort to the United Nations

D

Arranged a ceasefire and the withdrawal of remaining U.S. forces

Question 4

One compromise reached at the 1787 Constitutional Convention concerning slavery provided that

A

slavery would be abolished gradually in all states by the year 1808.

B

Congress could not prohibit the Atlantic slave trade until 1808.

C

each enslaved person would be counted fully for purposes of representation.

D

enslaved people would immediately be granted the right to vote.

Question 5

The spread of maize agriculture northward from Mesoamerica contributed to which TWO of the following changes among North American societies? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

The abandonment of nearly all hunting and gathering almost at once

B

The rise of larger, more permanently settled communities

C

The end of long-distance trade among far-flung distant regions

D

The growth of more complex and socially ranked societies

E

The spread of one shared common language across the whole continent

Question 6

Source for Questions 6–8—Constructed timeline of civil rights movement events, 1955–1965 (constructed practice material).

Year	Event
1955	Montgomery Bus Boycott begins
1957	Federal troops enforce desegregation at Little Rock
1960	Greensboro lunch-counter sit-ins
1963	March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom
1964	Civil Rights Act passed
1965	Voting Rights Act passed

According to the timeline, which event occurred first?

A

The Montgomery Bus Boycott.

B

The Greensboro lunch-counter sit-ins.

C

The March on Washington for Jobs and Freedom.

D

The Voting Rights Act.

Question 7

The 1957 event listed in the timeline, involving Little Rock's Central High School, is significant chiefly because:

A

It ended the year-long Montgomery Bus Boycott through a federal court order.

B

It marked the first sit-in at a segregated lunch counter.

C

It repealed state segregation laws across the South.

D

It brought federal intervention to enforce a school's desegregation.

Question 8

The progression of events from 1955 to 1965 best supports which generalization about the movement?

A

Grassroots protest combined with federal action produced major gains.

B

Every major gain came from a single march in one southern city.

C

The federal government opposed civil rights throughout the period.

D

Progress depended entirely on the state governments of the South.

Question 9

Public outcry stirred by muckraking reports such as Upton Sinclair's The Jungle most directly helped Congress pass which TWO federal laws in 1906? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

The Sherman Antitrust Act, first passed back in 1890

B

The Interstate Commerce Act, first passed back in 1887

C

The Pure Food and Drug Act

D

The National Labor Relations Act of the 1930s

E

The Meat Inspection Act

Question 10

When the Senate debated the Treaty of Versailles, the leading objection raised by Senator Henry Cabot Lodge and others centered on:

A

the treaty's failure to gain new overseas colonies for the nation.

B

the treaty's refusal to demand any reparations from Germany.

C

a provision that might commit the United States to defend other members.

D

a clause requiring the United States to disband its army and navy.

Question 11

During the “Citizen Genet” affair of 1793, the French envoy caused a crisis by taking which action?

A

Recruiting Americans to arm privateers against Britain despite neutrality

B

Demanding that the United States repay its Revolutionary War debts at once

C

Offering to sell the Louisiana territory to the United States government

D

Seizing American merchant vessels bound for ports in the West Indies

Question 12

Off-reservation boarding schools such as the Carlisle Indian Industrial School were designed to

A

preserve Native languages and traditional religious practices.

B

train Native leaders to govern fully independent reservations.

C

relocate Native families to farmland farther west.

D

assimilate Native children into white American culture.

Question 13

Source for Questions 13–14—Constructed table of United States war production and defense spending (rounded historical figures).

Year	Military aircraft produced	Defense spending (% of GDP)
1939	2,100	2%
1944	96,000	37%

Which statement is best supported by the table?

A

Aircraft production rose sharply while the defense share of spending fell after 1939.

B

Both aircraft production and defense spending rose only slightly by 1944.

C

Defense spending rose while aircraft production sharply declined by 1944.

D

Both aircraft production and defense spending rose steeply from 1939 to 1944.

Question 14

Which domestic economic effect followed most directly from the mobilization shown in the table?

A

Unemployment rose sharply as factories shut down their assembly lines.

B

Farm prices collapsed because workers left the countryside for the cities.

C

Unemployment fell sharply as war plants hired millions of new workers.

D

Consumer goods became far more plentiful than before the war began.

Question 15

The Indian Removal Act of 1830, signed by President Andrew Jackson, authorized the federal government to

A

relocate southeastern Native nations to lands west of the Mississippi River.

B

grant full United States citizenship to all Native peoples at once.

C

return ancestral lands to the Cherokee and Creek nations of the Southeast.

D

establish permanent reservations within the original thirteen states.

Question 16

Source for Questions 16–17—Adapted primary source (Winston Churchill, address at Fulton, Missouri, March 1946). Read the passage before answering. “From Stettin in the Baltic to Trieste in the Adriatic, an iron curtain has descended across the Continent. Behind that line lie the capitals of the ancient states of Central and Eastern Europe, all subject in one form or another to Soviet influence and control.” In this speech, the phrase “iron curtain” referred to the

A

naval quarantine that the United States placed around the island of Cuba in 1962

B

division separating Soviet-controlled Eastern Europe from the West

C

fortified border drawn between North and South Korea

D

concrete wall built to divide the city of Berlin in two

Question 17

Churchill's 1946 address is historically significant chiefly because it

A

publicly warned of Soviet expansion early in the emerging Cold War

B

announced the Marshall Plan for European economic recovery

C

declared a formal alliance that ended the Cold War rivalry

D

called for the immediate use of atomic weapons against the Soviets

Question 18

Source for Questions 18–20—Adapted from a wartime address by President Abraham Lincoln, 1863 (public domain). “Four score and seven years ago our fathers brought forth on this continent a new nation, conceived in liberty and dedicated to the proposition that all men are created equal. … We here highly resolve that these dead shall not have died in vain—that this nation shall have a new birth of freedom—and that government of the people, by the people, for the people shall not perish from the earth.” The address links the soldiers' sacrifice most directly to which goal?

A

The immediate abolition of slavery in every state of the Union

B

The expansion of the United States westward to the Pacific Ocean

C

The repayment of the war debts owed to European creditor nations

D

The survival of a government founded on rule by the people

Question 19

The phrase “all men are created equal” most directly echoes which founding document?

A

The Declaration of Independence

B

The Mayflower Compact

C

The Articles of Confederation

D

The Federalist Papers

Question 20

Lincoln delivered this address on the occasion of

A

dedicating a soldiers' cemetery at the site of a major 1863 battle.

B

announcing the terms that ended the war between North and South.

C

proclaiming freedom for enslaved people in the loyal border states.

D

accepting the surrender of Confederate forces in Virginia.

Question 21

The Mayflower Compact of 1620 is significant in American history as an early example of

A

a written guarantee of full religious toleration for all faiths.

B

a royal charter granting home rule to a colonial assembly.

C

a treaty ending warfare between colonists and Native nations.

D

colonists agreeing to make and follow their own local laws.

Question 22

Germany's decision to resume unrestricted submarine warfare in early 1917 was significant because it:

A

destroyed the entire British navy in a single campaign.

B

persuaded Russia to remain in the war on the Allied side.

C

forced Britain and France to surrender quickly to the Central Powers.

D

led Germany to sink neutral and American ships without warning.

Question 23

Source for Questions 23–25—Constructed timeline of major federal Reconstruction measures (constructed practice material). Use the timeline to answer the questions that follow.

Year	Federal measure
1865	Freedmen's Bureau created; Thirteenth Amendment ratified
1866	Civil Rights Act passed over the president's veto
1867	Reconstruction Acts divide the South into military districts
1868	Fourteenth Amendment ratified
1870	Fifteenth Amendment ratified; first Enforcement Act
1871	Ku Klux Klan Act passed
1877	Last federal troops withdrawn from the South

According to the timeline, which measure came earliest?

A

The Reconstruction Acts dividing the South into military districts.

B

The creation of the Freedmen's Bureau for refugees and freedpeople.

C

The ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment protecting voting.

D

The withdrawal of the last federal troops from the South.

Question 24

Under the Reconstruction Acts shown on the timeline for 1867, before a former Confederate state could be readmitted to Congress it also had to

A

return control of the Southern governments to former Confederate leaders.

B

compensate former enslavers for the loss of enslaved laborers.

C

ratify the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution.

D

abolish the Freedmen's Bureau and end all federal aid programs.

Question 25

Beyond the withdrawal of troops itself, historians stress that the 1877 entry mattered because it

A

completed the ratification of the three Reconstruction amendments.

B

created the Freedmen's Bureau to protect Black voting rights.

C

guaranteed permanent federal protection of Black male suffrage.

D

opened the way for white “Redeemer” governments and disenfranchisement.

Question 26

The sinking of the British liner Lusitania in 1915 affected American opinion mainly because it:

A

destroyed a large shipment of American weapons bound for Germany.

B

triggered an immediate United States declaration of war on Imperial Germany.

C

killed civilians, including Americans, in a German submarine attack.

D

ended all American trade with the Allied powers in Europe.

Question 27

The Soviet launch of Sputnik in 1957 prompted the United States chiefly to

A

abandon the arms race and pursue immediate disarmament

B

withdraw its forces from the NATO alliance in protest

C

expand science education and establish a space agency

D

extend diplomatic recognition to the People's Republic of China

Question 28

The Ho Chi Minh Trail is best described as which of the following?

A

A network of supply routes used to move troops and material south

B

The fortified border fence separating North Vietnam from South Vietnam

C

The main highway connecting Saigon to the port city of Da Nang

D

The air corridor used by American bombers over North Vietnam

Question 29

The Judiciary Act of 1789 was important in the new government chiefly because it

A

abolished the existing state courts in favor of federal ones.

B

gave the president authority to appoint the state court judges.

C

created a single national court with no courts beneath it.

D

organized the federal court system below the Supreme Court.

Question 30

The term Columbian Exchange refers to the transfer between the Eastern and Western Hemispheres of

A

gold and silver coins minted exclusively in Spanish colonial cities

B

plants, animals, and diseases following contact after 1492

C

printed books and maps produced during the European Renaissance

D

enslaved laborers moved only between the Caribbean sugar islands

Question 31

The Social Security Act of 1935 included which TWO of the following provisions? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

It guaranteed comprehensive health insurance to every American citizen.

B

It set one national minimum wage that every employer had to pay.

C

It created a federal old-age pension funded by payroll taxes.

D

It guaranteed workers the right to bargain collectively through unions.

E

It set up a joint federal-state system of unemployment insurance.

Question 32

Harriet Beecher Stowe's 1852 novel Uncle Tom's Cabin is significant chiefly because it

A

persuaded Congress to outlaw slavery throughout the United States

B

convinced most Southern planters to free their enslaved workers

C

provided the legal basis for enforcing the Fugitive Slave Act

D

stirred Northern public opinion against slavery through its story

Question 33

Among the protections in the Bill of Rights, the Second Amendment concerns

A

the quartering of soldiers in private homes during peacetime.

B

a well regulated militia and the right to keep and bear arms.

C

protection against unreasonable searches and seizures of property.

D

the freedoms of speech, of the press, and of peaceable assembly.

Question 34

Source for Questions 34–35—Adapted from Haudenosaunee (Iroquois) oral tradition describing the Great Law of Peace (practice material). “We bind ourselves together by taking hold of one another's hands so firmly that a falling tree cannot separate us. The Five Nations—Mohawk, Oneida, Onondaga, Cayuga, and Seneca—shall be one, and matters that concern all shall be decided in a council of chiefs, each nation keeping charge of its own affairs.” The passage best describes which pre-contact political development?

A

A centralized empire ruled by a single divine emperor

B

A short-lived military alliance formed to conquer distant peoples

C

A confederation uniting several nations under a common council

D

A trading company chartered to control a river's fur trade

Question 35

A student argues that this structure resembled later ideas of federal union. Which feature of the passage best supports that comparison?

A

Member nations kept local authority while a shared council handled common matters.

B

A single ruler held final authority over every member nation's decisions.

C

The nations surrendered all self-government to a permanent standing army.

D

Membership was closed to any people not related by blood to the founders.

Question 36

Which of the following was a central demand of the Populist (People's) Party platform in the 1890s?

A

The adoption of the gold standard as the nation's sole monetary basis.

B

The free and unlimited coinage of silver to expand the money supply.

C

The elimination of the federal income tax on personal earnings.

D

The transfer of the railroads and the telegraph into private ownership.

Question 37

Which TWO of the following were prominent critics who attacked the New Deal from outside the Roosevelt administration? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

Senator Huey Long, who advocated his “Share Our Wealth” program

B

Frances Perkins, who served as Roosevelt's secretary of labor throughout the New Deal

C

Father Charles Coughlin, the radio priest who attacked the New Deal

D

Harry Hopkins, who ran the federal relief agencies for Roosevelt

E

Harold Ickes, who administered the New Deal's major public-works spending

Question 38

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization, formed in 1949, was created primarily to

A

provide collective defense against Soviet expansion in Europe

B

administer Marshall Plan aid to the recovering European states

C

govern the four occupation zones of a defeated Germany

D

promote lower tariffs and freer trade among member states

Question 39

A major immediate trigger of the Great Depression in the United States was

A

the stock-market crash of October 1929.

B

the imposition of federal wage and price controls.

C

the entry of the United States into a foreign war.

D

a sudden sharp rise in the value of the dollar.

Question 40

The Second Great Awakening of the early nineteenth century helped inspire which TWO reform movements? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

It promoted the rapid expansion of slavery into the western territories.

B

It inspired the abolitionist movement against slavery.

C

It gave energy to the temperance crusade against alcohol.

D

It discouraged churches from any involvement in social questions.

E

It ended immigration from the Catholic countries of Europe.

Question 41

The overland Silk Road, greatly expanded under the Han dynasty, is best described as

A

a single paved highway that the emperors built only to move their armies within China

B

a network of caravan routes linking China to Central Asia and the Mediterranean

C

a sea passage that connected the ports of India directly to the Americas

D

a system of canals joining the Yellow and Yangzi river valleys of China

Question 42

The international response to Iraq's 1990 invasion of Kuwait is often cited as an example of

A

collective security, as many nations acted under United Nations authorization.

B

unilateralism, since a single nation acted without support from any allies.

C

appeasement, since the aggressor was allowed to keep all of its territorial gains.

D

a superpower proxy war fought indirectly between two rival Cold War blocs.

Question 43

The Grito de Dolores issued by Miguel Hidalgo in 1810 is best described as

A

a call that launched the popular uprising for Mexican independence from Spain.

B

a royal decree granting Mexico self-government within the Spanish Empire.

C

a treaty that ended the wars fought between Mexico and the United States.

D

a sweeping religious reform that separated the Mexican church from the pope in Rome.

Question 44

Source for Questions 44–45—Adapted primary source (from Bernal Diaz del Castillo, a Spanish soldier, The True History of the Conquest of New Spain, c. 1568). “When we reached the great market, we were astonished at the crowds of people and the quantity of goods, and at the good order that prevailed. Each kind of merchandise was kept by itself and had its fixed place marked out. Judges sat and settled the disputes of the traders.” The passage is most useful to a historian as evidence about

A

the religious ceremonies performed atop the Aztec temples.

B

the scale and organization of commerce in the Aztec capital.

C

the military tactics that the Aztecs used against their enemies.

D

the farming methods that fed the people of Tenochtitlan.

Question 45

The detail that “judges sat and settled the disputes of the traders” most strongly suggests that

A

the market operated without any rules or supervision.

B

Aztec authorities regulated and oversaw the marketplace.

C

only nobles were permitted to buy and sell at the market.

D

all trade in the capital was conducted by the barter of cacao.

Question 46

The Greek War of Independence in the 1820s is significant as an early example of

A

a socialist revolution led by an organized industrial working class.

B

a colony in the Americas breaking free from European control.

C

a nationalist movement winning independence from the Ottoman Empire.

D

a religious war fought entirely without any foreign involvement.

Question 47

The Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty of 1987 was notable primarily because it

A

admitted the Soviet Union as a full member of the NATO alliance.

B

authorized the deployment of new missiles throughout Eastern Europe.

C

eliminated an entire class of nuclear missiles held by both sides.

D

transferred nuclear weapons from Europe back to the United States.

Question 48

The Battle of Adwa in 1896 is historically notable because it

A

marked the first use of railroads to move troops in an African war.

B

saw an African state defeat a European power and keep its independence.

C

completed the European partition of Africa set at the Berlin Conference.

D

ended the slave trade along the East African coast.

Question 49

Martin Luther's Ninety-Five Theses (1517) directly protested against

A

the translation of the Bible into the German language.

B

the coronation of the Holy Roman Emperor at Rome.

C

the sale of indulgences by the Catholic Church.

D

the founding of the Jesuit order in Europe.

Question 50

Which TWO technological innovations are correctly credited to early imperial China? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

The first alphabet used across the Mediterranean world

B

The earliest coins, which were struck from electrum in Lydia

C

Paper for writing and keeping records

D

Gunpowder used in early weapons

E

The first mechanical printing press built in Europe

Question 51

Which development after about 1500 most clearly set the new global trade system apart from earlier Afro-Eurasian networks?

A

The complete disappearance of the overland caravan routes across all of Asia.

B

The linking of the Americas to Afro-Eurasia within a single trading system.

C

The replacement of all regional currencies by one common world coin.

D

The end of any religious influence over merchants and their commerce.

Question 52

The Battle of Stalingrad (1942–1943) is widely regarded as a turning point because

A

it destroyed a German army and began the Soviet advance westward.

B

it forced the Soviet Union to surrender its western territory to Germany.

C

it opened the first Allied ground front in Western Europe.

D

it brought an end to Japanese expansion across the Pacific.

Question 53

A government discovers that a foreign actor has used coordinated fake social-media accounts to spread false information during its national election. This scenario best illustrates which twenty-first-century security concern?

A

The threat posed by conventional naval blockades

B

The use of digital disinformation as a tool of interference

C

The spread of infectious disease across national borders

D

The depletion of the world's nonrenewable fossil-fuel resources

Question 54

The Ottoman capture of Constantinople in 1453 contributed to the Italian Renaissance in part by

A

cutting Italy off from all classical Greek learning.

B

destroying nearly every surviving ancient manuscript.

C

forcing Italian artists to abandon classical models.

D

driving Greek scholars and texts westward into Italy.

Question 55

Along the Silk Road, a caravanserai served travelers primarily as which of the following?

A

A frontier fortress that collected tolls by force from passing caravans.

B

A monastery where merchants were required to take vows before trading.

C

A roadside inn offering lodging, water, and rest for caravans and animals.

D

A market town where only silk could be legally bought and sold.

Question 56

In August 1945, the United States brought the war against Japan to an end by

A

launching a full ground invasion of the city of Tokyo.

B

dropping atomic bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

C

arranging a conditional peace through Soviet mediation.

D

blockading the home islands without any further attacks.

Question 57

The Byzantine emperor Justinian is best remembered for

A

leading the First Crusade to capture Jerusalem.

B

converting the entire Byzantine Empire to Islam.

C

dividing the Roman Empire into eastern and western halves.

D

compiling Roman law into the Justinian Code.

Question 58

The European Economic Community, which later grew into the European Union, was created mainly to

A

promote economic integration and free trade among European nations.

B

form a joint military command to fight the battles of the Cold War.

C

restore the overseas colonial empires of Europe's leading powers.

D

place Eastern Europe under a single unified communist economic plan.

Question 59

Mongol armies conquered vast territories in the thirteenth century largely because of their

A

large fleets of heavily armed oceangoing warships

B

slow-moving columns of foot soldiers wearing heavy plate armor

C

long defensive walls built along all of their frontiers

D

fast, disciplined horsemen skilled as mounted archers

Question 60

Which TWO statements accurately describe the 1956 Suez Crisis? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

Egypt's leader Gamal Abdel Nasser nationalized the Suez Canal

B

Egypt sealed off all of its land and sea borders to trade with the Soviet bloc

C

Egypt entered a formal military alliance with the United States

D

Egypt granted full independence to its neighbor Algeria

E

An invasion by Britain, France, and Israel was reversed under outside pressure

Question 61

Source for Questions 61–63—Adapted from the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen (France, 1789). Article 1. Men are born and remain free and equal in rights. Article 4. Liberty consists in being able to do anything that does not harm another. Article 6. Law is the expression of the general will, and all citizens are equal before it. Article 16. Any society in which the separation of powers is not established has no constitution. According to Article 6 of this passage, law is best understood as

A

a command issued by the king to be obeyed by his subjects.

B

a set of special privileges reserved for the hereditary nobility.

C

the expression of the general will, binding citizens equally.

D

a body of rules that applies only to the common people.

Question 62

A historian would most accurately note which limitation of the Declaration as it was adopted in 1789?

A

It applied only to those residing within the city of Paris.

B

It immediately abolished the institution of private property in France.

C

It granted full and equal political rights to every person in the French colonies.

D

Its promise of equality did not extend, in practice, to women or the enslaved.

Question 63

The ideas in this passage most directly reflect the influence of

A

Enlightenment ideas such as natural rights and separation of powers.

B

medieval theories asserting the divine right of anointed kings.

C

the economic doctrines of state-directed mercantilism.

D

the inherited privileges of the feudal manorial order in the countryside.

Question 64

Source for Questions 64–66—Adapted from the Treaty of Versailles, Article 231 (the “War Guilt Clause”), 1919. The Allied and Associated Governments affirm, and Germany accepts, the responsibility of Germany and her allies for causing all the loss and damage to which the Allied Governments and their nationals have been subjected as a consequence of the war imposed upon them by the aggression of Germany and her allies. What was the principal legal function of this clause within the treaty?

A

It transferred all German colonies directly to the League for permanent administration.

B

It established German responsibility for the war as the legal basis for reparations.

C

It required Germany to adopt a democratic constitution modeled on the victors.

D

It dissolved the German army and navy and placed them under Allied command.

Question 65

According to the passage, for what does Germany accept responsibility?

A

Beginning the prewar naval arms race among the great powers

B

The loss and damage caused by the war and its aggression

C

Refusing to join a system of collective security

D

The financial collapse of the prewar alliance system

Question 66

A historian would most likely cite this clause to help explain which later development?

A

Germany's rapid economic recovery during the mid-1920s boom

B

The United States Senate's swift ratification of the treaty

C

The voluntary, permanent demilitarization of the Rhineland region

D

German resentment that later nationalist movements exploited

Question 67

The ninth Sapa Inca, Pachacuti, is remembered chiefly for

A

leading the resistance that expelled the Spanish from Peru.

B

transforming the realm around Cusco into a vast empire.

C

inventing the quipu to record the empire's yearly tribute.

D

sailing across the Pacific to trade with Polynesian islands.

Question 68

Which TWO actions did the Council of Trent (1545–1563) take as part of the Catholic Counter-Reformation? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

It reaffirmed traditional Catholic doctrine and the seven sacraments.

B

It adopted the Protestant teaching of salvation by faith alone.

C

It merged the Catholic and Lutheran churches under one shared creed.

D

It curbed clerical abuses such as the sale of church offices.

E

It handed authority over doctrine to Europe's secular princes.

Question 69

The Haitian Revolution (1791–1804), led in its early years by Toussaint Louverture, is historically significant primarily because it did which of the following?

A

Produced the first independent state founded by formerly enslaved people

B

Restored French colonial rule over the entire Caribbean region

C

Prevented revolutionary ideas from spreading beyond continental Europe

D

Ended the transatlantic trade in enslaved Africans immediately

Question 70

Historians most often cite which TWO conditions as long-term causes of World War I? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

The spread of decolonization across Africa and Asia.

B

Militarism and the glorification of armed strength.

C

A wave of disarmament treaties among the great powers.

D

Nationalism and pride among rival national groups.

E

The expansion of voting rights to industrial workers.

Question 71

Many of the armed conflicts of the 1990s, such as those in the Balkans and Rwanda, differed from Cold War conflicts in that they

A

were fought primarily between the armies of the two superpowers.

B

were fought mainly over competing global economic ideologies.

C

were resolved quickly through direct superpower negotiation.

D

arose largely from ethnic and religious divisions within states.

Question 72

Source for Questions 72–73—Constructed migration-flow map. Arrow thickness is proportional to the number of migrants; each arrow is also labeled with its volume.

Graphical stimulus supplied with the question

Which origin sent the largest migrant stream into the Metro Region?

A

Region C (coast)

B

Region A (northern hills)

C

Abroad

D

Region B (southern plains)

Question 73

The three largest streams on the map begin in rural areas and end in a single metropolitan region. This pattern is the geographic signature of

A

rural-to-urban migration and urbanization.

B

counter-urbanization toward the countryside.

C

transhumance following seasonal pasture.

D

a refugee flow crossing an international border.

Question 74

Source for Questions 74–76—Constructed table of language use in a region. Each row gives, in millions, the number who speak a language as a first language and the number who speak it as an additional language.

Language	First-language speakers (millions)	Additional-language speakers (millions)
Language P	12	3
Language Q	8	55
Language R	20	5
Language S	6	2

Which language has the largest total number of speakers in the region?

A

Language Q

B

Language R

C

Language P

D

Language S

Question 75

Based on the table, which language most clearly functions as a lingua franca in the region, and why?

A

Language Q, because far more speak it as an added tongue than as a first

B

Language R, because it has the most first-language speakers of the four

C

Language P, because its first- and added-language totals are about equal

D

Language S, because it has the fewest total speakers in the region

Question 76

Which conclusion about Language R is best supported by the table?

A

Language R serves as the region's main lingua franca.

B

Language R is spoken mostly as a first language.

C

Language R has more added- than first-language speakers.

D

Language R has the fewest speakers of any in the region.

Question 77

Which of the following best describes how greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide warm the lower atmosphere?

A

They reflect incoming sunlight back out to space before it warms the ground surface.

B

They absorb outgoing infrared radiation and re-emit it toward the surface.

C

They destroy stratospheric ozone, admitting more ultraviolet light.

D

They raise the planet's reflectivity, cooling the polar regions.

Question 78

Source for Question 78—Constructed cross-section of moist air crossing a mountain range. Prevailing winds move from the windward (west) side over the peak to the leeward (east) side.

In the diagram, the dry conditions on the leeward side of the range are best explained by which process?

A

Cold ocean currents cool the air before it reaches the coast

B

The leeward slope receives far less sunlight through the year

C

Warm air rising on the leeward slope condenses into heavy rain

D

Descending air warms and dries after crossing the peak

Question 79

The United Kingdom's creation of a Scottish Parliament with authority over regional matters is an example of which political process?

A

Supranationalism, in which states merge some authority into a larger union

B

Irredentism, in which a state seeks to annex territory held by a neighbor

C

Annexation, in which a state formally incorporates newly acquired territory

D

Devolution, in which a central government grants power to a subnational region

Question 80

Source for Question 80—Constructed line graph of global mean temperature anomaly (constructed practice material). The anomaly is the departure of each year's global mean temperature from a long-term baseline. Read the axes and units before answering.

Which statement is best supported by the trend shown?

A

Temperature stayed essentially constant across the whole period.

B

Temperature rose until 1980 and then declined afterward.

C

The greatest warming occurred before the year 1940.

D

Temperature rose overall, fastest in the most recent decades.

Question 81

Geographers commonly classify an urban area whose population exceeds 10 million people as which of the following?

A

A primate city that dominates its own national urban system

B

A conurbation formed from several merged towns

C

A world city that directs global finance and trade

D

A megacity, an urban area of over 10 million people

Question 82

Grouping countries into a “Global North” and a “Global South” is a regionalization based mainly on

A

levels of economic development and average wealth.

B

exact lines of latitude drawn at fixed degrees north.

C

the official languages spoken within each country.

D

membership in one shared military defense alliance.

Question 83

Which TWO of the following are best classified as renewable resources? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

Sunlight captured by rooftop solar panels

B

Coal laid down in ancient buried swamp deposits

C

Crude oil pumped from deep underground reservoirs

D

Copper ore mined from a fixed ore deposit

E

Wind that spins the blades of the turbines

Question 84

The diagram below traces a migrant's route from an inland village toward a coastal city, following the arrows. Four features along the way are labeled.

The migrant is stopped for months at one labeled feature before continuing. On the diagram, which labeled feature functions as an intervening obstacle?

A

The village of origin, where the migrant's journey first begins

B

The coastal city, which is the intended destination of the move

C

The checkpoint, at which the journey is blocked for many months

D

The open plain that the migrant crosses early along the route

Question 85

A researcher needs a world map on which the true sizes of countries can be compared for a study of population density. Which projection best serves this purpose?

A

An equal-area projection, which preserves regions' relative sizes

B

A Mercator projection, which preserves compass direction for navigation

C

A gnomonic projection, which shows great-circle routes as straight lines

D

An azimuthal projection centered on a pole for polar navigation

Question 86

One map has a representative fraction of 1:1,200; another has a representative fraction of 1:1,000,000. Both are printed on the same size sheet of paper. Compared with the 1:1,000,000 map, the 1:1,200 map

A

shows a smaller area in greater detail.

B

shows a larger area in greater detail.

C

shows a smaller area in less detail.

D

shows an identical area at identical detail.

Question 87

Source for Questions 87–89—Constructed human development data table (constructed practice material). Read the column headings and units before answering.

Country	HDI	GNI per capita (PPP $)	Life expectancy (years)	Mean years of schooling
P	0.915	48,200	82.1	12.9
Q	0.740	13,500	74.5	9.2
R	0.560	4,800	66.0	6.1
S	0.430	2,100	59.3	4.4

According to the table, which country has both the highest life expectancy and the most mean years of schooling?

A

Country Q

B

Country P

C

Country R

D

Country S

Question 88

The United Nations groups countries into human development tiers: very high (HDI ≥ 0.800), high (0.700–0.799), medium (0.550–0.699), and low (below 0.550). Using these tiers and the table, which country falls in the medium human development category?

A

Country P

B

Country Q

C

Country R

D

Country S

Question 89

Country R's GNI per capita is more than twice Country S's, yet both trail Country P by a wide margin. Development analysts often prefer the HDI to GNI per capita alone chiefly because the HDI does which of the following?

A

It measures the overall size of a nation's economy more precisely.

B

It removes income entirely so that rankings depend only on schooling.

C

It converts every figure into one currency to make comparison easier.

D

It reflects health and education that income alone can conceal.

Question 90

Source for Question 90—Constructed diagram of three rural settlement patterns (constructed practice material). Each panel shows the arrangement of dwellings (dots) within a farming district.

Which panel shows a nucleated settlement pattern, in which dwellings are grouped closely together?

A

Pattern 1, in which the dwellings are scattered widely apart

B

Pattern 2, in which the dwellings are grouped tightly together

C

Pattern 3, in which the dwellings line up along a single route

D

None of the panels shows any grouping of the dwellings at all

Question 91

Source for Questions 91–93—Constructed campaign-funding data for one candidate (constructed practice material). Each bar shows the funds the candidate raised from a source, in millions of dollars.

According to the chart, which source supplied the largest share of the candidate's funds?

A

Small individual donors giving under the reporting threshold

B

Large individual contributions from single donors

C

Political action committee contributions to the campaign

D

Funds the candidate personally loaned to the campaign

Question 92

The four sources shown raised $20 million in all. About what share of the total came from small individual donors?

A

About 10 percent of the total funds raised by the campaign

B

About 20 percent of the total funds raised by the campaign

C

About 30 percent of the total funds raised by the campaign

D

About 45 percent of the total funds raised by the campaign

Question 93

Suppose a new law matched every small donation under $200 with public funds. Based on the chart, that reform would most directly increase the relative importance of which source?

A

The funds the candidate loaned to the campaign personally

B

The contributions received from political action committees

C

The large individual contributions from single donors

D

The small individual donations given under $200

Question 94

Source for Questions 94–96—Constructed civics scenario. Acting on a teacher's report that a student had been seen breaking school rules, a high-school assistant principal takes the student to the office and opens and examines the contents of the student's backpack. The student later argues that the search was improper. Which amendment governs whether the school's search was permissible?

A

The First Amendment, protecting the freedom of expression

B

The Fifth Amendment, protecting against self-incrimination

C

The Fourth Amendment, protecting against unreasonable searches

D

The Sixth Amendment, guaranteeing the assistance of legal counsel

Question 95

In New Jersey v. T.L.O. (1985), the Court set the standard for searches of students by public-school officials. Under that ruling, such a search is generally permissible when officials have—

A

a warrant signed by a judge that describes the place to be searched

B

reasonable grounds to suspect the search will turn up evidence of a violation

C

the prior written consent of both the student and the student's parents

D

probable cause identical to the demanding standard the police must meet

Question 96

Suppose a court later finds that a search violated the Fourth Amendment. Which consequence follows from the exclusionary rule?

A

Evidence obtained through the unlawful search may be barred from trial

B

The official who conducted the search is automatically sent to prison

C

The charges against the defendant are always dismissed without review

D

The evidence is admitted but given reduced weight by the trial jury

Question 97

Source for Questions 97–99—Adapted from the Supreme Court's opinion in United States v. Nixon (1974). “Neither the doctrine of separation of powers nor the generalized need for confidentiality of high-level communications, without more, can sustain an absolute, unqualified presidential privilege of immunity from judicial process under all circumstances. The President's need for candor from advisers calls for great deference from the courts. However, when the privilege depends solely on the broad, undifferentiated claim of public interest in confidentiality, we conclude that it cannot prevail over the fundamental demands of due process of law in the fair administration of criminal justice.” What did the Court hold about the President's claim of executive privilege in this case?

A

Executive privilege is unlimited whenever the president chooses to invoke it.

B

Executive privilege has no basis in the Constitution whatsoever.

C

A generalized privilege must yield to a criminal trial's demands.

D

The courts lack any authority to review a president's privilege claim.

Question 98

The Court's reasoning reaffirmed which broader constitutional principle?

A

Even the president is bound by the law and the judgments of the courts.

B

The president alone determines the outer limits of his official powers.

C

Congress must approve in advance every action of the executive branch.

D

Confidential presidential communications may never be disclosed to anyone.

Question 99

How does the outcome of the case illustrate the system of checks and balances?

A

It shows the executive branch overruling a decision of the courts.

B

It shows the judicial branch limiting a claim of executive power.

C

It shows Congress removing the president from office directly.

D

It shows the president expanding his own powers without any limit.

Question 100

Courts have treated some conduct, such as wearing a symbol to make a statement, as “symbolic speech.” This classification means that such conduct—

A

receives no protection at all because it uses no spoken words

B

may receive First Amendment protection as expressive conduct

C

is always protected regardless of any effect it has on others

D

is governed only by the laws of the state where it takes place

Question 101

Source for Questions 101–102—Adapted primary source (from George Mason's “Objections to This Constitution of Government,” 1787). Mason, a Virginia delegate, refused to sign the finished Constitution. “There is no declaration of rights; and the laws of the general government being paramount to the laws and constitutions of the several states, the declarations of rights in the separate states are no security. There is no declaration of any kind for preserving the liberty of the press, or the trial by jury in civil causes.” Mason's chief objection to the proposed Constitution was that it

A

created a president who could serve for an unlimited number of terms

B

gave the states more power than the new national government would hold

C

allowed the importation of enslaved people to continue past the year 1808

D

contained no declaration of rights protecting basic individual liberties

Question 102

The objection Mason raised was ultimately answered when the First Congress

A

proposed the first ten amendments, ratified in 1791 as the Bill of Rights

B

rewrote the entire Constitution to include a monarch limited by law

C

abolished the state governments that Mason had sought to protect

D

postponed the new government until every state had approved unanimously

Question 103

The Supreme Court's decision in Lemon v. Kurtzman (1971) is best known for creating a test used to judge whether a government action violates which constitutional provision?

A

The Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment

B

The Free Exercise Clause of the First Amendment

C

The Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment

D

The Establishment Clause of the First Amendment

Question 104

Congress passed a law banning guns near schools under the Commerce Clause, but the Supreme Court struck it down, ruling that carrying a gun in a school zone is not economic activity that substantially affects interstate commerce. This decision is significant because it —

A

Expanded federal commerce power to reach nearly all local activity

B

Overturned the incorporation of the Bill of Rights against the states

C

Stripped the states of their reserved police powers

D

Set a modern limit on Congress's commerce power

Question 105

A newly independent nation declares that its government “exists to protect the equal rights of its citizens and holds authority only so long as it does so.” This statement rests on

A

the theory of the divine right of kings to rule without challenge

B

mercantilist doctrine tying national power to hoards of gold and silver

C

the idea that inherited rank should determine political authority

D

social-contract theory, linking legitimate power to protecting rights

Question 106

Source for Question 106—Constructed voter-turnout chart (constructed practice material). Each bar shows the percentage of eligible voters in an age group who cast a ballot in one election.

According to the chart, voter turnout was highest among which age group?

A

Ages 18–24

B

Ages 25–44

C

Ages 45–64

D

Ages 65 and older

Question 107

In Wesberry v. Sanders (1964), the Supreme Court held that the congressional districts within a state must

A

follow the existing boundaries of the state's counties

B

be redrawn by the state's governor after every census

C

hold roughly equal populations of voters

D

each elect one member to the House and one to the Senate

Question 108

A state law once required voters to pay a fee before casting a ballot in a federal election. The Twenty-fourth Amendment (1964) addressed this practice by

A

requiring each state to reimburse the voters for any fees that they had already paid

B

permitting the fee to continue only in elections for state and for local offices

C

lowering the fee to an amount that the federal government considered to be reasonable

D

prohibiting poll taxes as a condition of voting in federal elections

Question 109

Under the Constitution, the power to declare war belongs to

A

the president, acting alone as commander in chief of the forces

B

the Supreme Court, through its power of judicial review

C

the secretary of defense, who directs the armed services

D

the Congress, by a formal declaration passed in both chambers

Question 110

In which kind of case does the Constitution give the Supreme Court original jurisdiction, so that the case may begin there rather than arrive on appeal?

A

An appeal from a U.S. district court conviction

B

A dispute over a federal criminal statute

C

A private citizen's challenge to a state tax

D

A case affecting a foreign ambassador

Question 111

Rucho v. Common Cause (2019) established which principle about partisan gerrymandering?

A

Partisan gerrymandering claims raise political questions the federal courts cannot decide.

B

Partisan gerrymandering always violates the Equal Protection Clause of the Constitution.

C

Racial gerrymandering, unlike partisan gerrymandering, is immune from any judicial review.

D

Congress has no authority to regulate the times and manner of federal elections.

Question 112

Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution abolished slavery throughout the nation?

A

The Nineteenth Amendment.

B

The Fifteenth Amendment.

C

The Fourteenth Amendment.

D

The Thirteenth Amendment.

Question 113

A citizens' group campaigns for cleaner air, a benefit that non-members enjoy just as much as dues-paying members. Many potential supporters therefore decline to join or contribute. This situation best illustrates which obstacle to interest-group organizing?

A

Logrolling among rival groups

B

The revolving-door problem

C

Astroturf mobilization

D

The free-rider problem

Question 114

Source for Questions 114–115—Adapted from the Declaration of Sentiments, Seneca Falls Convention (Elizabeth Cady Stanton, 1848, public domain). We hold these truths to be self-evident: that all men and women are created equal; that they are endowed by their Creator with certain inalienable rights. The history of mankind is a history of repeated injuries on the part of man toward woman, having in direct object the establishment of an absolute tyranny over her. He has never permitted her to exercise her inalienable right to the elective franchise. He has compelled her to submit to laws in the formation of which she had no voice. Which specific grievance does the passage raise about the treatment of women?

A

Women were denied the vote and any voice in making the laws they had to obey

B

Women were required to serve in the national army during every time of war

C

Women were forbidden by law to own or to inherit any form of private property

D

Women were barred from attending the public religious services of any church

Question 115

The authors deliberately echoed the wording of the Declaration of Independence in order to

A

cast women's demand for equal rights as part of the nation's own founding ideals

B

propose a detailed new plan for organizing the branches of the federal government

C

demonstrate that women rejected the guiding principles of the American Revolution

D

persuade the British government to grant the colonies their political independence

Question 116

Source for Question 116—Constructed diagram of an interest group's channels of influence (constructed practice material). Each outer box names a target of influence and, in parentheses, tactics typically aimed at it.

Filing an amicus curiae brief in a pending case is an example of the group influencing which target shown in the diagram?

A

The legislature

B

Executive agencies

C

The public

D

The courts

Question 117

The Supreme Court held that the government may not ban independent political spending by corporations and unions, treating such spending as protected speech. Which decision announced that rule?

A

Buckley v. Valeo, which upheld limits on direct campaign contributions

B

Citizens United v. FEC, which protected independent political spending

C

Baker v. Carr, which required equally populated legislative districts

D

Shaw v. Reno, which limited race-based redistricting plans

Question 118

In Nixon v. United States (1993), a federal judge who had been impeached and removed argued that the Senate's trial procedure was unconstitutional. The Supreme Court held that

A

the Senate must provide a full jury trial in every impeachment case.

B

federal courts may reverse a Senate conviction that they find unfair.

C

how the Senate conducts an impeachment trial is a nonjusticiable political question.

D

only the House, not the Senate, may try an official who is impeached.

Question 119

The Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment requires that a state

A

provide the same public services in each of its counties

B

collect the same amount of tax from each of its residents

C

not deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws

D

delay its protection for new residents until a year has passed

Question 120

Which TWO of the following are basic purposes that governments serve? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

Guaranteeing that every single citizen earns an identical income

B

Maintaining public order and the security of the community

C

Ensuring that all citizens hold the very same religious beliefs

D

Settling disputes and providing services like roads and courts

E

Preventing citizens from forming their own clubs and associations

Question 121

Federalism in the United States is best defined as which of the following?

A

A division of power between a national government and the states.

B

A concentration of all power in one central national government.

C

A system in which the courts exercise all lawmaking authority.

D

An arrangement by which states give up their separate governments.

Question 122

The Supreme Court's decision in Chisholm v. Georgia (1793), allowing a citizen to sue a state in federal court, was quickly overturned by

A

the Tenth Amendment, reserving undelegated powers to the states

B

the Twelfth Amendment, changing how the president is elected

C

the Eleventh Amendment, limiting federal suits against a state

D

a federal statute removing the courts' authority over the states

Question 123

A savings account pays a nominal interest rate of 3 percent over a year in which the inflation rate is 5 percent. Which statement best describes the real return on the money in the account?

A

About negative 2 percent, so purchasing power fell over the year

B

About positive 2 percent, so purchasing power rose over the year

C

About positive 8 percent, so the savings grew quickly in real terms

D

About positive 3 percent, so inflation left the real savings unchanged

Question 124

Source for Questions 124–126—Constructed business-cycle diagram. The solid curve shows real GDP over time, and the dashed line is the long-run growth trend. Turning points and curve segments are labeled.

Curve segment Q falls from the peak to the trough. Which phase of the business cycle does segment Q represent?

A

Expansion, when real output rises toward a peak

B

Contraction, when real output declines from a peak

C

Trough, the lower turning point of the cycle

D

Recovery, when output first climbs above the trend line

Question 125

During the contraction shown by segment Q, total spending falls across the economy and firms lay off workers. Which type of unemployment is most likely to increase during this phase?

A

Frictional unemployment, from workers voluntarily searching between jobs

B

Structural unemployment, from a lasting mismatch of skills and jobs

C

Seasonal unemployment, from predictable calendar changes in demand

D

Cyclical unemployment, from the economy-wide decline in demand

Question 126

Analysts want to judge whether the downturn shown qualifies as a recession. By the common textbook rule of thumb, a recession is identified when which of the following occurs?

A

The price level falls for two consecutive months.

B

The unemployment rate exceeds its natural rate by any amount.

C

Nominal GDP grows more slowly than it did the prior year.

D

Real GDP declines for two or more consecutive quarters.

Question 127

Compared with a perfectly competitive industry that has the same costs, which TWO outcomes are typical of a single-firm monopoly? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

It charges a lower price and expands output beyond competitive levels.

B

It restricts output to a smaller quantity than before.

C

It produces the same price and quantity as competitive firms.

D

It sets a higher price than competitive firms charge.

E

It must supply whatever quantity that consumers demand.

Question 128

In Highland a car requires 4 labor-hours and a computer requires 2; in Lowland a car requires 6 labor-hours and a computer also requires 6. Which pattern of specialization lets both countries gain from trade?

A

Highland specializes in cars; Lowland specializes in computers.

B

Both countries specialize in producing computers.

C

Highland produces both goods; Lowland produces neither.

D

Highland specializes in computers; Lowland specializes in cars.

Question 129

Source for Question 129—Constructed savings-growth diagram (constructed practice material). The diagram traces the balance of a single $1,000 deposit over time under two plans that start at the same interest rate.

The two lines begin together but move apart over time. Which statement best explains why the compound-interest balance pulls ahead of the simple-interest balance?

A

The simple-interest plan pays a higher rate in every year.

B

The compound plan withdraws its interest instead of keeping it.

C

Both plans pay interest only on the original $1,000 deposit.

D

Compound interest is paid on interest already earned as well.

Question 130

Which TWO of the following are basic functions that commercial banks perform in the economy? Select the TWO that apply.

Select two answers.

A

Accept deposits from households and businesses.

B

Set the nation's benchmark interest rate for the whole banking system.

C

Extend loans and credit to borrowers and investors.

D

Issue the country's paper currency and coins.

E

Collect federal income taxes from wage earners.

Question 131

Which of the following would cause a change in the quantity supplied of gasoline rather than a shift of the entire gasoline supply curve?

A

A rise in the market price of gasoline itself

B

A decline in the price of the crude oil used to refine gasoline

C

A new refining technology that lowers per-gallon production costs

D

An increase in the number of firms operating gasoline refineries

Question 132

Source for Questions 132–134—Constructed real GDP growth chart for Country M. Each bar shows the annual percentage change in real GDP.

In which year did Country M's economy contract, with negative real GDP growth?

A

Year 3, when growth was -2.0 percent

B

Year 1, when growth was 3.2 percent

C

Year 5, when growth was 2.8 percent

D

Year 4, when growth was 0.5 percent

Question 133

Using the growth chart for Country M, between which two consecutive years did the real GDP growth rate change by the greatest amount?

A

Between Year 1 and Year 2, a change of 1.4 percentage points

B

Between Year 2 and Year 3, a change of 3.8 percentage points

C

Between Year 3 and Year 4, a change of 2.5 percentage points

D

Between Year 4 and Year 5, a change of 2.3 percentage points

Question 134

Suppose Country M's Year 3 contraction was driven mainly by a sharp fall in private investment. Which policy would most directly offset that drop in aggregate demand, and through what channel?

A

Contractionary fiscal policy, by trimming the federal budget deficit

B

Higher reserve requirements, by expanding total bank lending

C

Lower interest rates, by encouraging investment and consumption

D

Open-market bond sales, by increasing the overall money supply

Question 135

Country X can make one computer at an opportunity cost of 4 tons of grain, while Country Y can make one computer at an opportunity cost of 8 tons of grain. Which statement is correct?

A

Country X exports computers at a price between 4 and 8 tons of grain

B

Country Y exports computers at a price of 2 tons of grain

C

Country X exports grain because it makes computers cheaply

D

Neither country gains because Country X is more efficient overall

Question 136

A student uses $1,000 to open a savings account instead of buying a laptop she wanted. In economic terms, the laptop she gave up represents which of the following?

A

A sunk cost that she can recover at a later date

B

The opportunity cost of saving the money

C

A fixed cost of keeping a bank account open

D

A negative externality created by her choice

Question 137

A binding minimum wage set above the market equilibrium wage is most likely to

A

create a surplus of labor in the low-wage market.

B

eliminate unemployment throughout the whole economy.

C

lower the wages earned by low-skilled workers.

D

have no effect since it sits above the equilibrium wage.

Question 138

A corrective (Pigouvian) tax on a polluting good is designed to

A

raise as much revenue as possible from sales of the taxed good

B

equal the external cost so price reflects the full social cost

C

hold the good's price steady no matter how much is produced

D

guarantee the polluting firm a normal profit on every unit sold

Question 139

A homeowner restores the historic front of her house, which raises the market value of neighboring homes even though those neighbors pay nothing toward the work. Economists describe this spillover benefit as which of the following?

A

A positive externality benefiting others

B

A public good available to the entire nation

C

A government transfer payment to households

D

A monopoly rent captured by one seller

Question 140

In a pure command economy, the question of which goods and services to produce is answered primarily by which of the following?

A

The buying choices of consumers acting in competitive markets

B

Long-standing customs and roles inherited from earlier generations

C

Individual firms responding to changing profits and prices

D

Central government planners who set output targets for producers

Praxis Social Studies (5581): Practice Test 2 Online

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